This may be a flimsy theory but I was just thinking, what if "standing" is just a red herring?
Is it possible that due to the influence of a foreign power in this case, the issue isn't that the plaintiffs in the case lack standing, but that the courts themselves lack jurisdiction?
Q always said the military was the only way--is it possible that military courts are the only way too when election fraud involves foreign actors?
That is absolutely correct, but for those not in the legal profession, so many have no idea what the difference is, and unfortunately those jackasses on the left interpret these cases being dismissed for lack of standing as Trump losing, when those of us who know better understand that is not the case. Spread your knowledge as far as you can, as lay people are misconstruing this terribly! Take care :)