It’s my understanding that Covid tests are total shit and the Covid virus has never been isolated. Has anyone explained how a Covid test can tell which “variant” someone has? I think it’s all bullshit but they aren’t even trying to make sense anymore.
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My close friend claimed that his friend who works in some medical center in WA confirmed that they did genetic sequencing for 269 patients in one of the hospitals, and found 80% had delta variant.
I am posting this purely as a anecdotal data point.
Btw, Richard Fleming explains very clearly that tehre is a part of the spike protein that is the unstable part and thats where all the variants are being found, but the stable part is where all the deadly stuff have been added. So, even if variants are real (they are very real, viruses mutate all the time), highly unlikely that any variant is suddenly "deadly".
According to Mike Yeadon, no variant has been more than 0.003% different than the original Wuhan sequence. A variant needs to be at least 20% different to justify being a variant. All down to the number of different amino acids, apparently. Example cited: in one string of 10,000 amino acids from one variant (was either South Africa or Brazil, don’t recall), only 27 were different from the original Wuhan sequence amino acids. I am not a scientist so I don’t know what constitutes ‘different’ but I am an aware human, and I can see Yeadon is a reputable, credible expert with no agenda or axe to grind, except to counter scientific lies and misinformation.
Agreed. Also, I think for something to be really deadly, there has to be specific sequences targeting specific receptors, and if that happens so quickly, more than likely they were engineered. I will check with my friend if he has any references to the delta variant sequencing.
Honestly, I think his friend is blowing hot air - chances of these folks doing so much gene sequencing for something so bogus is laughable. But what can you do when people provide info based on what "their friend said". You cant very well accuse them of being charlatans. So for me its just a data point - might amount to nothing.
If you say that, you have to really back it up with at least some evidence, even circumstantial or coincidence based.
I know you are referring to the "germ theory scam" - Louis Pasteur and his germ theory, and the 3 rules of germ infection, and how no one has been able to isolate germs and prove that these germs can cause the same symptoms in a healthy individual.
As far as bacteria is concerned its true. But I want to challenge you whether this is true for virus? Can we confidently claim that no studies have been conducted where a healthy individual has been effectively infected by exposing them to virus?
I don't know the answer, but I haven't seen anyone claim one way or another authoritatively, hence digging is needed.
Start with this (and similar studies): https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/32485164/
Humanised mice, successfully infected with Sars-CoV-2 virus. If an isolated virus can infect a humanised mice, perhaps virus are not like bacteria?
Is it possible that originally propagating the germ theory scam using "bacteria", somewhere along the line Fauci et al (perhaps during the HiV days) actually created something that fits with the germ theory retroactively? What if viruses were the way to cover their tracks for all the germ theory scams?
There is a lot o dig here Anon, nothing to be taken at its face vaue.
So is bubble obviously. Any serious discussion of variants for a non existant virus is the work of a shill.