They are trying to push this shit it in our schools. They use Hollywood to set the example. The complete Satanic picture is forming itself.
(media.greatawakening.win)
🤢 These people are sick! 🤮
It's an abomination to the Holy Spirit; the author of Nature's Law.
From the Greek, the Holy Spirit is defined. And there is so much more of a better understanding of what the 'Holy Spirit' is contrasted to what we are being taught. Even our religious faith is based on Nature's Laws. If indeed, the Holy Spirit is the author of Nature's Laws, we as a people are interminably governed by them. They are keystone to all of life on Earth and is a great responsibility to maintain the immutable order set forth by the Creator. I refer to the Greek for the following reason.
The oldest Bible of the Old Testament in existence is the Greek Septuagint. The Septuagint was used widely by the early Christians exclusively as their Old Testament Bible. This is a widely accepted fact and that the quotations of Christ and His Apostles that occur in the New Testament are taken exclusively from the Septuagint. According to tradition it was Ptolemy Philadelphus, who purchased the freedom of Israelites in his territories, arranged for 6 scholars from each of the 12 tribes to translate the first five books of the Old Testament from the ancient Hebrew into Greek around 285 BC. By this time, a practical knowledge of the Hebrew language was all but lost among the Hellenized Israelites citizens. And it was greatly feared understanding the written language would be lost forever.
After the conquests of Alexander the Great, Greek had become the common language of the known world. So Ptolemy gathered these 72 scholars in Alexandria, Egypt and they completed the Pentateuch (first five Books of the OT). The Latin name 'Septuagint', meaning 70, was later, applied to the translation. Both 'The Letter of Aristeas', who was an assistant of Ptolemy and the historian Flavius Josephus record in detail the history of the making of the Septuagint. It is unclear when the rest of the OT was finished in the Septuagint, but it was certainly finished by 150 BC. The original Hebrew written OT are now lost in antiquity.
Having stated this, I needed to give a foundation to why I'm using the Greek for translating when I'm talking about the Holy Spirit. The word 'Holy' is no where to be found in any manuscripts. It is a 'helpful' word added by the patristic writers to the modern Scripture. Instead of 'Spirit', we have [Holy] Spirit. The word 'holy' basically means 'separated'. It helps better understand and separate this Spirit from other 'spirit' of different meaning. The Greek word for 'Spirit' is 'pneuma'. We see this in English words like 'pneumatic' or 'pneumonia'. It means in the Greek-- "a current of air, i.e. breath (blast) or a breeze." The meaning goes further to include -- "by analogy or figuratively, a spirit, i.e. (human) the rational soul, (by implication) vital principle, mental disposition, etc., or (superhuman) an angel, demon, or (divine) God, Christ's spirit, the Holy Spirit:--ghost, life, spirit(-ual, -ually), mind." The root word of 'pneuma' is 'pneo' -- to breathe hard, i.e. breeze:--blow.
The reason I've mentioned this is the Holy Spirit is not at all the ‘Zeus’-like figure we are provided, but something very different. The word 'pneuma' is closely associated to the Greek word 'psuche', which means -- "1. breath (a) the breath of life (1) the vital force which animates the body and shows itself in breathing of animals and of men. (b) life (c) that in which there is life (1) a living being, a living soul. 2. the soul (a) the seat of feelings, desires, affections, aversions, (our heart, soul, etc.) (b) the (human) soul in so far as it is constituted that by the right use of the aids offered it by God it can attain its highest end and secure eternal blessedness, the soul regarded as a moral being designed for everlasting life. (c) the soul as an essence which differs from the body and is not dissolved by death (distinguished from other parts of the body)."
The meaning of the ‘Holy Spirit’ goes much deeper than I presented here. Nevertheless, this should provide a starting point for anyone to find deeper understanding. The point I’m making here is the Holy Spirit is an Intelligence; a Mentality of Separation that is everywhere and is exemplified throughout Nature and Nature's Laws. In fact, in Thayer and Smith, "The New Testament Greek Lexicon" we are told to compare this to the Greek word 'psuchikos' --1. produced by nature, inborn 2. agreeable to nature 3. governed by (the instincts of) nature.
It's quite obvious that transgender ideology is not agreeable to Nature. It is not produced by nature. Furthermore, it is not governed by Nature. In other words, it is contrary to Nature and Nature's Laws. Therefore, it is an abomination to the author of Life and Nature; the Holy Spirit.
What Greek Lexicon do you use that doesn't show the fake word "Jew" in it?
Wescott and Hort's Greek is to be avoided at all costs.
This word has been intermingled with the words 'Israelite', 'Judahite', 'Judean', 'pharisee', and 'Edomite' for over 400 years. It's use in the Bible is ambiguous and unfortunately needs to be deciphered for every verse that it is used. Some times it refers to the Roman province of Judea, other times it refers more accurately to Edomites. Other times it references 'Israelites". As an example, I recently reviewed Acts 10:22. It reads from the KJV as:
22 And they said, Cornelius the centurion, a just man, and one that feareth God, and of good report among [G5239] all [G3650] the nation [G1484] of the Jews, [G2453] was warned from God by an holy angel to send for thee into his house, and to hear words of thee.
Properly etymological deliberation and discernment would have this verse read:
22 And they said, Cornelius the centurion, a just man, and one that feareth God, and of good report by1 all2 the Israelites3 of Judea4, was warned from God by an holy angel to send for thee into his house, and to hear words of thee.
The Greek word used here is ‘hypo’ which means - under, i.e. (with the genitive case) of place (beneath), or with verbs (the agency or means, through); (with the accusative case) of place (whither (underneath) or where (below) or time (when (at)):—among, by, from, in, of, under, with.
Footnotes for the numerals above are provided below.
1. The Greek word used here is ‘hypo’ which means - under, i.e. (with the genitive case) of place (beneath), or with verbs (the agency or means, through); (with the accusative case) of place (whither (underneath) or where (below) or time (when (at)):—among, by, from, in, of, under, with.
2. The Greek word ‘holos’ is used, which means – ‘all’, ‘whole’, ‘completely’.
3. Strong’s Concordance defines ‘nation’ (G1484) from the Greek word ‘ethnos’ probably from ‘ethos’ (G1486); which is a race (as of the same habit), i.e. a tribe. The English word ‘ethnic’ certainly better fits the definition as to ‘gentile’, which infers the word ‘goy’; ‘foreigner’; and ‘heathen’. Here, it is referenced as being of the same company; customs and ethnicity. It is therefore "Israelites of Judea" being described here.
4. The Greek word for Jews (G2453) is ‘ioudaios’. This is an adjective descriptive of, but is more properly referenced to the Israelites living in Judea.
The word Jew is an English word originally referring to those Eastern European people who spoke Yiddish. Even the Yiddish people did not view themselves as Israelites. The word 'Jew' did not exist during the Roman times. Rome referred to the region as 'Judea' and those people of the region as 'Judeans'. Even Pontius Pilate inscribed a title in Latin on the torture stake that read - "Jesus the Nazerene King of the Judeans". Every ancient historian, including Josephus referred the region as a greatly mixed population. This makes sense, since the region is indeed at the cross road of trade between three continents. It is also for this reason that there has been constant upheaval of wars. The cross road of trade has always been highly coveted. The entire population of the region has been replaced several times over. Whenever it was conquered, its people were enslaved and carried away in captivity. The allies of the conquering army were rewarded with much of the spoils. By the time the Greeks conquered the region, the people inhabiting the region was vastly populated by the conquering aliens and allies. We know from history that one of the allies, who were instrumental for the conquest of Judah by Nebuchadnezzar, king of Babylon, were the Edomites. They were rewarded by given the lands of the region. This included the shops, businesses, orchards, homes, and more. It is no coincidence that the ancient Greeks prior to the Romans called the region 'Idumea' meaning land of the Edomites. King Herod himself was an Edomite. One doesn't rise to power of a king unless there is an ethnic kinship representing those people. Then we have this from the Jewish Encyclopedia, 1925 edition, Vol. 5, Page 41, which states -- "Edom is in modern Jewry".
As mentioned above, the word Jew derives from a 16th Century Old English mis-transliteration of Yiddish. It stuck. This information is derived from English etymology. The name Jew is analogous to the English appellative name "German" that refers to the people of Deutschland. The people of Deutschland (Germany) call themselves "Deutsch" (the people; race) or 'teuto' as in 'Teutonic' as they were called by the Gallic or 'Tuatha De Dannan', which means 'race or people of Dan'. Obviously, the Deutsch do not call themselves 'Germans'. Another example to the gross misappellation is the name -- 'Welsh'. This is an English word deriving from High German 'wallische' meaning 'strangers'. How utterly absurd for the alien German Angles to call the aborigine Brit population 'strangers'. The 'Welsh' call themselves among each other 'Khumri'. The Jews do not refer to themselves as Israelites. In the 1980 Jewish Almanac, 1st chapter "Identity Crisis" and also found in the Jewish Encyclopedia IV, 1902, p 335), it states -- "Strictly speaking, it is incorrect to call an ancient Israelite a 'Jew' or to call a contemporary Jew an 'Israelite' or a 'Hebrew'".
Most Christians don't realize Judaism is a newer religion than Christianity is and Christianity has NEVER been based on Judaism. This is a inconvenient truth that is publicly a taboo subject. Believe it or not, Judaism was created to confront the spread of Christianity - using the Bible as a prop and also to conceal Judaism's ritualistic practice of blood-letting. The proof is of course in writing and can be found in Judaism's foundational Passover text.
Judaism's foundational Passover text is not from the Old Testament but rather the Haggadah, a thoroughly Talmudic work. (M. Hoffman III, "Judaism Discovered"). The Talmud was compiled as a result of the absolute destruction of Herod’s temple, in which every stone was carried away leaving no trace of it’s existence. In it we learn:
In 66 CE, when the Roman general Vespasian swept into Jerusalem, Judaism was a cultic, oral religion, with Herod's massive temple as its lodestar. Everything happened in the temple complex. Four years later, Vespasian's son Titus razed it to the ground. A quote from the Talmud:
"Where was God under the rubble?" wondered the Rabbis. "How to praise him now that the temple was gone?" The sages agreed: Jews would have to BECOME a people of the book, or they would disappear.
Hence, they were NOT a people of the book before this time.
The word Jew can never be translated in scripture. It does not belong anywhere near the Word of God. Judea, Judeans, Judah or Judahites never add up to the word Jew. Basically only Satan can pull that off because a new race was hatched and nobody today knows what it means except stupid brainwashed dispensation baptist churches. Jew today means practioners of Judaism aka Pharisaism aka synagogue of Satan. The probable blood line is Esau/Canaanite Edomite.
I can tell you didn't really read my post. You wrote -- "Judea, Judeans, Judah or Judahites never add up to the word Jew." I didn't say this. You simply didn't comprehend my missive. I mentioned other tangible answers to why this 'word' got placed into the bible (it was a blunder of extraordinary measure). It began in c. early 1600s AD. Prior to that the English word 'Jew" is non-existent. Did you read the verse I provided (Acts 10:22) and its etymological correct reading?