Old English writings didn't us "J". It is a later creation. As I said the Greek word is in the adjective form. This is important for the reason why the adjective word 'Judean' fits the translation. If we used the word Judahite that would be a noun. Unfortunately, it must be an adjective word, which brings us back to the word 'Judaean'. We know the word Jew (Iewe) is an English creation. I mentioned earlier the 3 sources to which the 1611 KJV was derived. One of those sources is the Latin Vulgate, which most certainly used 'Judaean', since this was the name Rome called the province.

My point here is the KJV, albeit is a good source to start with, it is not a source to rely on. All bibles are corrupted, but the older ones are better than the modern versions. One must always dig deeper. I have even found the Old Jerusalem bible (pre-1964) as a good accompanying source. Just know the word 'Jew' never existed in the Christian bible prior to its translation into English. The word 'Jew' is from Yiddish origins and is a mistranslation and mis-identity of Yids being Judahites. Yiddish people are essentially the Ashkenazi branch of Judaism that originates in Khazaria (today's Ukraine). When the Khazarian empire fell there was a large western movement to which many settled in Germany and the Netherlands and later England. History records Khazarians often were name stealers. Recently. Clif High provided a video dealing with this subject. So, is it surprising there might have been some deceit claiming they were descendants of Judah?