Sorry to burst your bubble but its important to take the entire chapter into context. Then you will learn the truth. He is speaking to a specific group of jews in front of him, not all jews. He even says that if you (a jew) believe in him, you are his children so. Not all jews.
This is simply not true and easily debunked. Yet, it is parroted by the enemy of Jesus Christ again and again. It is one of the Zionists 5 major falsehoods which work to conceal their nature and protect their status and power, to wit: (1) The Jews are Israelites, and thus God's chosen people; (2) Jesus Christ was a Jew; (3) That 6 million Jews were killed in a holocaust during WW II; (4) That all people are equal; and, (5) That the Jews are just another religious group. It's becoming obvious to who you are.
So speaking of a population that does not believe in Jesus is a problem for you. Clown world is everywhere.
I guess next you will say there is nothing in the Talmud about breaking the spines of the infacts backs ? You are the fact checker, lol.
Two types of Jew: ethnically / religiously. Jesus was a Jew in both senses.
He completed the Jewish religion by serving as the Messiah (Christ) whom the prophets had long foretold.
The completed form of the Jewish religion is known as Christianity.
Jesus was a Jew by descent, and He lived a Jewish life.
Born in Judah to a Jewish mother
Raised in Galilee in a Jewish home.
Taught in Jerusalem, the Jewish capital.
Ministered throughout Israel: “He came to His own [the Jewish people], and His own [the Jews] did not receive Him” (John 1:11, NKJV).
Jesus said, “You [Gentiles] worship what you do not know; we [Jews] know what we [Jews] worship, for salvation is of the Jews” (John 4:22).
The son of David, the son of Abraham” (Matthew 1:1).
When the angel Gabriel announced Jesus’ birth, he spoke of Jesus’ having “the throne of his father David” and of His “reign over Jacob’s descendants forever” (Luke 1:32–33).
In writing of Jesus’ unique priesthood, the author of Hebrews says, “It is clear that our Lord descended from Judah” (Hebrews 7:14).
Judah was a son of Jacob, and it’s from his name that we get the word Jew.
Mary’s genealogy, in Luke chapter 3, shows that the mother of Jesus was a direct descendant of King David, giving Jesus the legal right to the Jewish throne and establishing without a doubt that Jesus was a Jew by descent.
Jesus’ parents were careful to do all that the law required of them (Luke 2:39).
Jesus often taught in synagogues (Matthew 13:54; Luke 6:6; John 18:20), and even in the temple (Luke 21:37).
In His teaching, Jesus pointed to the Law and the Prophets as authoritative (Matthew 5:17; 12:5; Mark 10:19)
He taught others to keep the law (Matthew 23:1–3)
He Himself observed the commandments.
Jesus identified with the religion of the Jews and was considered a rabbi (John 1:38; 6:25)
He strongly rejected the pharisaical reinterpretation of the religion.
As a Jew, Jesus observed Passover (John 2:13)
The Feast of Tabernacles (John 7:2, 10)
Hanukkah, (John 10:22)
Jesus was called the King of the Jews (Mark 15:2).
The Messiah prophesied in the Old Testament was a Jewish savior, one chosen by God for a special purpose. The Messiah was to serve God by redeeming Israel and then ruling from Zion, bringing peace, righteousness, and security to Israel (see Isaiah 9:6—7; 32:1; Jeremiah 23:5; Zechariah 9:9).
Jesus is the Jewish Messiah, the Son of David sent to the Jews, and in His earthly ministry He focused on “the lost sheep of Israel” (Matthew 15:24). But in His death and resurrection, Jesus secured salvation for all who would trust in Him, regardless of their nationality or background. The Jewish Messiah became the worldwide Savior (Ephesians 2:11–22).
We've been through this before. I've given you absolute proof, but you completely ignore it and continue parroting a Zionist narrative. As I said before, the word 'Jew' did not exist in any language before the 16th Century. The Latin word in the time of Jesus was 'Judea', which was a province of Rome. The mixed population living there were referred to being 'Judean'. Before Rome administrated Judea, it was the Hellenic Greeks, who called this very area 'Idumea', which means the land of the Edomites. The Edomites were the largest ethnic group in Idumea (Judea), even in Jesus time. This is even emphasized by the fact that king Herod was an Edomite. Jesus came from the small remnant of Israelites living by the Sea of Galiliee. Jerusalem was an international city dominated by the Edomites. It was Herod's temple that was destroyed by the Romans in 70 AD.
You keep using the word 'Jew' when the word Jew has been intermingled with 'Israelite', 'Judahite', 'Judean', 'pharisee', and 'Edomite'. The word never existed until the 16th Century when the English misapplied it to Yiddish Ashkenazi immigrants originally from Khazaria. The kingdom of Khazaria had a reputation as far away as China as being name-stealers. Clif High has gone into detail providing the of it and Arthur Koestler's work.
As I have said before and you keep ignoring is that the word jew is a modern one so it makes sense that the literal word wasn't in the Bible. The word "jesus" also want in the Bible.
You also seem to forget that Jew literally means a decendant of Jacob. What purpose was there in the Bible to show Jesus's lineage? Becuase it was important where he came from.
"Khazarians are not jews, they only pretend to be."
As Clif High stated - They are name-stealers. Hence, claiming to be who they are not. This is when the English mis-translated word 'Jew' came in to existence. They were duped.
Sephardic Jews are adultrated Edomites. Judaism is >90% Talmudism. The predecessor of the Talmud was the Mishnah and is precisely what Jesus denounced. It is a front for the ancient Hebrew books of the Old Testament.
"You also seem to forget that Jew literally means a de[s]cendant of Jacob."
It most certainly does not necessarily mean this. I explained the reason why to you before. I'll re-post this part of it. Each word 'Jew' in the Bible is intermingled with 'Israelite', 'Judahite', 'Judean', 'pharisee', and 'Edomite'. Each use has to be ferreted and properly translated.
Even Jewish scholars in Jewish academic texts say-- ""Strictly speaking, it is incorrect to call an ancient Israelite a 'Jew' or to call a contemporary Jew an 'Israelite' or a 'Hebrew'". -- 1980 Jewish Almanac. Academic Jews also admit the modern Jews are not Israelite or Hebrew. In fact, they even tell us when the false claim got started. In the Encyclopedia Judaica 1971 Vol 10:23, it states -- "Jews began in the 19th century to call themselves Hebrews and Israelites in 1860." Furthermore, Jewish academics clarify who the modern Jews are: "Edom is in modern Jewry" The Jewish Encyclopedia, 1925 edition, Vol. 5, Page 41
The historic record completely affirms this.
“The Edomites were conquered by John Hyrcanus who forcibly converted them to Judaism, and from then on they constituted a part of the Jewish people, Herod being one of their descendants”, The Standard Jewish Encyclopedia, (Garden City, NY: Doubleday & Company, Inc., 1966), pg. 594, AS WELL AS in the The New Standard Jewish Encyclopedia (Garden City, NY: Doubleday & Company, Inc., 1977) p. 589
"From this time the Idumeans (Edomites) became an inseparable part of the Jewish people”, Encyclopedia Judaica Jerusalem, in Volume 8, page 1147
“When, years before, John Hyrcanus had forced Judaism on the Idumeans (Edomites) he evidently conjectured that the new, though unwilling, converts could learn to identify their own destiny with that of his people”, The Jews, their History, Culture, and Religion, pg. 121
... this would mean that their ancestors came not from the Jordan but from the Volga; not from Canaan but from the Caucasus, once believed to be the cradle of the Aryan race; and that genetically they are more related to the Hun, Uigur, and Magyar tribes than to the seed of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob…, Prof. A. N. Poliak, Tel Aviv University
Archaeologists have long noted the racial attribute of the ancient Israelites were dolichocephalic (long-headed). The avg. cranial head capacity was that of Caucasian ancestry.
This presents a dilemma in that the Jews today are brachycephalic (round-headed). Such racial attributes do not change in time. This means Jews today are not related racially to the ancient Israelites. We then learn that the Talmud also admits to this contrary.
Judaism's foundational Passover text is not from the Old Testament but rather the Haggadah, a thoroughly Talmudic work. (M. Hoffman III, "Judaism Discovered"). The Talmud was compiled as a result of the absolute destruction of Herod’s temple, in which every stone was carried away leaving no trace of it’s existence. In it we learn:
In 66 CE, when the Roman general Vespasian swept into Jerusalem, Judaism was a cultic, oral religion, with Herod's massive temple as its lodestar. Everything happened in the temple complex. Four years later, Vespasian's son Titus razed it to the ground. A quote from the Talmud:
"Where was God under the rubble?" wondered the Rabbis. "How to praise him now that the temple was gone?" The sages agreed: Jews [Edomites] would have to BECOME a people of the book (Old Testament), or they would disappear.
Hence, they were NOT a people of the Old Testament before this time.
Indeed, Jesus was Jewish in the BEST sense of the name. Think back on Genesis 12:2, 3. Our Lord was TOTALLY blessed and - for all humanity for all time - He was/is a MIGHTY Blessing. And for those who curse Christ Jesus? uh-oh.
And in our modern day, I think of our dear Dr. Zelenko. Has he been blessed? I certainly think so. Is he a blessing? I think he is working his HEART out to be a blessing & healer to many (in SPITE of his own personal medical problems).
Does Dr. Z hate Lord Jesus? I don't think so but you'd have to ask him. Dr. Zelenko may not verbally acknowledge Christ as God - but from my point of view, the good Doctor seems to have a servant's heart, and his heart imitates Christ in many ways. It seems obvious to me that the God of Dr. Zelenko is the Father of Lord Jesus Christ. God is Three in One. LOL! If you worship The Father (El Adonai, El Shaddai - 'Hashem'), you also are worshiping the Son and the Holy Ghost. You don't get to tell the other two to 'butt out'.
Christ our Lord was/is a 'spiritual descendant' of Father Abraham: "Blessed to Be a Blessing". In at least that sense, Jesus was most DEFINITELY a 'Jew'. I think Dr. Z is also a 'spiritual descendant' of Father Abraham: "Blessed and absolutely, a Blessing". Is our dear Dr. a Jew? I think so but, you'd have to ask him.
It is easily proven by the genealogy of Jesus that He indeed was an Israelite. The word 'Jew' didn't even exist until the mis-transliteration of it into English in 16th Century. It stuck. This information is derived from English etymology.
The Latin word for the Roman province was 'Judea'. Judea in Roman times was a very mixed population. The predominant ethnicity in Judea was Edomite. The Hellenic Greeks who ruled this area prior to the Romans called the region 'Idumea', which means the land of the Edomites. King Herod was an Edomite. Anyone from Judea was referred to a 'Judean'. There were some Israelite remnants that dwelled in the Sea of Galilee area to which Jesus grew up.
The name Jew is analogous to the English appellative name "German" that refers to the people of Deutschland. The people of Deutschland (Germany) call themselves "Deutsch" (the people; race) or 'teuto' as in 'Teutonic' as they were called by the Gallic or 'Tuatha De Dannan', which means 'race or people of Dan'. Obviously, the Deutsch do not call themselves 'Germans'. Another example to the gross misappellation is the name -- 'Welsh'. This is an English word deriving from High German 'wallische' meaning 'strangers'. How utterly absurd for the alien German Angles to call the aborigine Brit population 'strangers'. The 'Welsh' call themselves among each other 'Khumri'. The Jews do not refer to themselves as Israelites. In the 1980 Jewish Almanac, 1st chapter, "Identity Crisis" and also found in the Jewish Encyclopedia IV, 1902, p 335), it states -- "Strictly speaking, it is incorrect to call an ancient Israelite a 'Jew' or to call a contemporary Jew an 'Israelite' or a 'Hebrew'".
Sorry to burst your bubble but its important to take the entire chapter into context. Then you will learn the truth. He is speaking to a specific group of jews in front of him, not all jews. He even says that if you (a jew) believe in him, you are his children so. Not all jews.
I didn't say ALL jews. Stop jumping to conclusions about my thoughts.
Jesus was a jew too BTW.
This is simply not true and easily debunked. Yet, it is parroted by the enemy of Jesus Christ again and again. It is one of the Zionists 5 major falsehoods which work to conceal their nature and protect their status and power, to wit: (1) The Jews are Israelites, and thus God's chosen people; (2) Jesus Christ was a Jew; (3) That 6 million Jews were killed in a holocaust during WW II; (4) That all people are equal; and, (5) That the Jews are just another religious group. It's becoming obvious to who you are.
So speaking of a population that does not believe in Jesus is a problem for you. Clown world is everywhere. I guess next you will say there is nothing in the Talmud about breaking the spines of the infacts backs ? You are the fact checker, lol.
What are you talking about? My post was not a reply to you and doesn't even relate to what I was talking about. This isn't for you.
We've been through this before. I've given you absolute proof, but you completely ignore it and continue parroting a Zionist narrative. As I said before, the word 'Jew' did not exist in any language before the 16th Century. The Latin word in the time of Jesus was 'Judea', which was a province of Rome. The mixed population living there were referred to being 'Judean'. Before Rome administrated Judea, it was the Hellenic Greeks, who called this very area 'Idumea', which means the land of the Edomites. The Edomites were the largest ethnic group in Idumea (Judea), even in Jesus time. This is even emphasized by the fact that king Herod was an Edomite. Jesus came from the small remnant of Israelites living by the Sea of Galiliee. Jerusalem was an international city dominated by the Edomites. It was Herod's temple that was destroyed by the Romans in 70 AD.
You keep using the word 'Jew' when the word Jew has been intermingled with 'Israelite', 'Judahite', 'Judean', 'pharisee', and 'Edomite'. The word never existed until the 16th Century when the English misapplied it to Yiddish Ashkenazi immigrants originally from Khazaria. The kingdom of Khazaria had a reputation as far away as China as being name-stealers. Clif High has gone into detail providing the of it and Arthur Koestler's work.
As I have said before and you keep ignoring is that the word jew is a modern one so it makes sense that the literal word wasn't in the Bible. The word "jesus" also want in the Bible.
You also seem to forget that Jew literally means a decendant of Jacob. What purpose was there in the Bible to show Jesus's lineage? Becuase it was important where he came from.
Khazarians are not jews, they only pretend to be.
As Clif High stated - They are name-stealers. Hence, claiming to be who they are not. This is when the English mis-translated word 'Jew' came in to existence. They were duped.
Sephardic Jews are adultrated Edomites. Judaism is >90% Talmudism. The predecessor of the Talmud was the Mishnah and is precisely what Jesus denounced. It is a front for the ancient Hebrew books of the Old Testament.
It most certainly does not necessarily mean this. I explained the reason why to you before. I'll re-post this part of it. Each word 'Jew' in the Bible is intermingled with 'Israelite', 'Judahite', 'Judean', 'pharisee', and 'Edomite'. Each use has to be ferreted and properly translated.
Even Jewish scholars in Jewish academic texts say-- ""Strictly speaking, it is incorrect to call an ancient Israelite a 'Jew' or to call a contemporary Jew an 'Israelite' or a 'Hebrew'". -- 1980 Jewish Almanac. Academic Jews also admit the modern Jews are not Israelite or Hebrew. In fact, they even tell us when the false claim got started. In the Encyclopedia Judaica 1971 Vol 10:23, it states -- "Jews began in the 19th century to call themselves Hebrews and Israelites in 1860." Furthermore, Jewish academics clarify who the modern Jews are: "Edom is in modern Jewry" The Jewish Encyclopedia, 1925 edition, Vol. 5, Page 41
The historic record completely affirms this.
“The Edomites were conquered by John Hyrcanus who forcibly converted them to Judaism, and from then on they constituted a part of the Jewish people, Herod being one of their descendants”, The Standard Jewish Encyclopedia, (Garden City, NY: Doubleday & Company, Inc., 1966), pg. 594, AS WELL AS in the The New Standard Jewish Encyclopedia (Garden City, NY: Doubleday & Company, Inc., 1977) p. 589
"From this time the Idumeans (Edomites) became an inseparable part of the Jewish people”, Encyclopedia Judaica Jerusalem, in Volume 8, page 1147
“When, years before, John Hyrcanus had forced Judaism on the Idumeans (Edomites) he evidently conjectured that the new, though unwilling, converts could learn to identify their own destiny with that of his people”, The Jews, their History, Culture, and Religion, pg. 121
... this would mean that their ancestors came not from the Jordan but from the Volga; not from Canaan but from the Caucasus, once believed to be the cradle of the Aryan race; and that genetically they are more related to the Hun, Uigur, and Magyar tribes than to the seed of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob…, Prof. A. N. Poliak, Tel Aviv University
Archaeologists have long noted the racial attribute of the ancient Israelites were dolichocephalic (long-headed). The avg. cranial head capacity was that of Caucasian ancestry.
This presents a dilemma in that the Jews today are brachycephalic (round-headed). Such racial attributes do not change in time. This means Jews today are not related racially to the ancient Israelites. We then learn that the Talmud also admits to this contrary.
Judaism's foundational Passover text is not from the Old Testament but rather the Haggadah, a thoroughly Talmudic work. (M. Hoffman III, "Judaism Discovered"). The Talmud was compiled as a result of the absolute destruction of Herod’s temple, in which every stone was carried away leaving no trace of it’s existence. In it we learn:
In 66 CE, when the Roman general Vespasian swept into Jerusalem, Judaism was a cultic, oral religion, with Herod's massive temple as its lodestar. Everything happened in the temple complex. Four years later, Vespasian's son Titus razed it to the ground. A quote from the Talmud:
"Where was God under the rubble?" wondered the Rabbis. "How to praise him now that the temple was gone?" The sages agreed: Jews [Edomites] would have to BECOME a people of the book (Old Testament), or they would disappear.
Hence, they were NOT a people of the Old Testament before this time.
Indeed, Jesus was Jewish in the BEST sense of the name. Think back on Genesis 12:2, 3. Our Lord was TOTALLY blessed and - for all humanity for all time - He was/is a MIGHTY Blessing. And for those who curse Christ Jesus? uh-oh.
And in our modern day, I think of our dear Dr. Zelenko. Has he been blessed? I certainly think so. Is he a blessing? I think he is working his HEART out to be a blessing & healer to many (in SPITE of his own personal medical problems).
Does Dr. Z hate Lord Jesus? I don't think so but you'd have to ask him. Dr. Zelenko may not verbally acknowledge Christ as God - but from my point of view, the good Doctor seems to have a servant's heart, and his heart imitates Christ in many ways. It seems obvious to me that the God of Dr. Zelenko is the Father of Lord Jesus Christ. God is Three in One. LOL! If you worship The Father (El Adonai, El Shaddai - 'Hashem'), you also are worshiping the Son and the Holy Ghost. You don't get to tell the other two to 'butt out'.
Christ our Lord was/is a 'spiritual descendant' of Father Abraham: "Blessed to Be a Blessing". In at least that sense, Jesus was most DEFINITELY a 'Jew'. I think Dr. Z is also a 'spiritual descendant' of Father Abraham: "Blessed and absolutely, a Blessing". Is our dear Dr. a Jew? I think so but, you'd have to ask him.
It is easily proven by the genealogy of Jesus that He indeed was an Israelite. The word 'Jew' didn't even exist until the mis-transliteration of it into English in 16th Century. It stuck. This information is derived from English etymology.
The Latin word for the Roman province was 'Judea'. Judea in Roman times was a very mixed population. The predominant ethnicity in Judea was Edomite. The Hellenic Greeks who ruled this area prior to the Romans called the region 'Idumea', which means the land of the Edomites. King Herod was an Edomite. Anyone from Judea was referred to a 'Judean'. There were some Israelite remnants that dwelled in the Sea of Galilee area to which Jesus grew up.
The name Jew is analogous to the English appellative name "German" that refers to the people of Deutschland. The people of Deutschland (Germany) call themselves "Deutsch" (the people; race) or 'teuto' as in 'Teutonic' as they were called by the Gallic or 'Tuatha De Dannan', which means 'race or people of Dan'. Obviously, the Deutsch do not call themselves 'Germans'. Another example to the gross misappellation is the name -- 'Welsh'. This is an English word deriving from High German 'wallische' meaning 'strangers'. How utterly absurd for the alien German Angles to call the aborigine Brit population 'strangers'. The 'Welsh' call themselves among each other 'Khumri'. The Jews do not refer to themselves as Israelites. In the 1980 Jewish Almanac, 1st chapter, "Identity Crisis" and also found in the Jewish Encyclopedia IV, 1902, p 335), it states -- "Strictly speaking, it is incorrect to call an ancient Israelite a 'Jew' or to call a contemporary Jew an 'Israelite' or a 'Hebrew'".