It seems you're somewhat unable to answer as perhaps to your frustration. No problem, I'll answer with the following, but first let me say -- Reading "you[r] gospel" (as you stated) is only a starting point though. The English transliteration is not very insightful and using one version is very limiting. I even use the Apocrypha and other External Evidence. Anyone wanting to get a better understanding of the Gospel and Old Testament should vet the English translations from the original Greek. Why do I say this? The etymology of the words of the Bible are based on the Koine Greek. The ancient written Hebrew has been lost in antiquity for over 2000 years. The neo-Hebrew of today in no way represents the original written documents. The Masoretic Text (other than the Dead Sea Scrolls) is the only existing representation of the Old Testament in Hebrew. The oldest fragments date from the 9th century AD, but the oldest complete texts come from the 19th and 11th centuries AD. However, the 'Hebrew' text that it contains is clearly not the original Hebrew, nor even the Hebrew that was used in the 1st century AD. The Hebrew of the 1st century AD was closely akin to the Greek Septuagint that we have today representation. This is clear because, although the Hebrew was little used, when it was used in ancient writing it was clearly in agreement with the Greek Septuagint rather than the Masoretic Text. In the 1st century AD, the Christians and all other Greek speaking Israelites, including a 1,000,000 of those living in Alexandria, Egypt, used the Greek Septuagint, which was first written in 285 BC because the realization and fear that the written Paleo-Hebrew was becoming extinct. We have Ptolemy Philadelphus to thank for this. It was he who purchased the freedom of Israelites in his territories, arranged for 6 scholars from each of the 12 tribes to translate the first five books of the Old Testament from the ancient Hebrew into Greek around 285 BC. By this time, a practical knowledge of the Hebrew language was all but lost among the Hellenized Israelites citizens. At that time Koine Greek was the 'international' language of the world commonly spoken in the region.

Who were the Masoretes? The Masoretes were Pharisaic scholars who added vowel points and grammar points to the Hebraic letters. With the original Hebrew OT being lost, the Masoretes depended on the existing Afro-asiatic language family (Arabic) and Aramaic to successfully 'recreate' a dead language. They most certainly relied on the Greek Septuagint to create their Masoretic Text. Most Bibles today are based on the Masoretic Text.

This is a synopsis of the Bible and the point I'm making here is it is important to understand the Greek in order to understand my question in the original post. The 7th Commandment (6th Commandment in the Greek Septuagint) is not at all the same or a similar Commandment as the 10th Commandment as it appears in English. It has everything to do with the immutable Laws of Nature. In fact, the Decalogue is based on the Laws of Nature. Mankind is subject to these Laws and violation of them through the Decalogue is death. In Liddel-Scott Lexicon and other concordances, it can be shown the meaning of the word 'adultery' is not the same word as it was understood in the original Greek or even up to the 1700s. Meanings of words change in time. An example of this today is the word -- 'gay', which meant something entirely different in the 1920s than it does in 2022. There are many other examples of English words changing over time as well. So, my point is God does not decree the same Commandment twice and gives it to man in stone. The 7th Commandment means 'something completely different than what we are being told.