So if news media can be proven to be complicit, actively working to get Hillary elected (really "anyone but Trump" in their words) - do they then lose their 1st amendment protections as they are no longer operating as journalists but rather corrupt politicians? And should they then be prosecuted similarly?
So if news media can be proven to be complicit, actively working to get Hillary elected (really "anyone but Trump" in their words) - do they then lose their 1st amendment protections as they are no longer operating as journalists but rather corrupt politicians? And should they then be prosecuted similarly?