"Precedent" is a word that gets thrown around a ton these days, but it is apparent nobody understands what it means. In a legal sense, "precedent" is a ruling in a previous case with same or very similar/analogous facts. In politics, there are plenty of instances of unequal treatment of republican officials. That people like Bannon get railroaded while Eric Holder does not is indicative of nothing...besides the double standard we've all known about for ages. People thinking that just because some Republicans had some bullshit happen to them, that suddenly will turn the tables and allow the inverse...those people haven't been watching how this works.
"Bannon was held in contempt! Precedent! Now Fauci's turn!!" as if we wouldn't still be depending on Merrick Garland's DOJ to do this. And as if they will even arrest him, let alone convene a grand jury to indict him...
One day I will do a post on legal precedent, and what should be the citizen's basic understanding of our legal system. So much nonsense gets posted that is just untrue because of a lack of understanding on what courts do.
They weren't discussing precedent in a legal sense, they were pointing out how Trump and others keep highlighting how it's unprecedented for a former president to have his residence raided by the FBI. The precedent is now there to go after other former presidents.
Ya, I get it. But it is something that has been going on completely one sided for decades. Republicans are like 98% of the fall guys for misbehavior in office. While possibly being just 20% of the misbehavers. If you are a dem, you can count on the spin machine defending you 999 out of 1000 times. A republican never gets the spin machine.
I guess my gripe is considering this double standard as a new development. That is all.
I actually did an extensive post on that a week or 2 ago. I am not sure I am buying it. But I went thru the exercise trying to figure out if that could work. Might be worth a read. Been waiting for someone to decisively tear it apart, but hasn't happened. I wrote it, but I am not totally buying it.
After posting, I found some minor holes in this, but nothing I couldn’t patch up. I still don’t think I sold myself on the theory though. Would be quite interested in your response. Feel free to rip it to shreds.
"Precedent" is a word that gets thrown around a ton these days, but it is apparent nobody understands what it means. In a legal sense, "precedent" is a ruling in a previous case with same or very similar/analogous facts. In politics, there are plenty of instances of unequal treatment of republican officials. That people like Bannon get railroaded while Eric Holder does not is indicative of nothing...besides the double standard we've all known about for ages. People thinking that just because some Republicans had some bullshit happen to them, that suddenly will turn the tables and allow the inverse...those people haven't been watching how this works.
"Bannon was held in contempt! Precedent! Now Fauci's turn!!" as if we wouldn't still be depending on Merrick Garland's DOJ to do this. And as if they will even arrest him, let alone convene a grand jury to indict him...
One day I will do a post on legal precedent, and what should be the citizen's basic understanding of our legal system. So much nonsense gets posted that is just untrue because of a lack of understanding on what courts do.
They weren't discussing precedent in a legal sense, they were pointing out how Trump and others keep highlighting how it's unprecedented for a former president to have his residence raided by the FBI. The precedent is now there to go after other former presidents.
It's precedent in the court of public opinion.
Ya, I get it. But it is something that has been going on completely one sided for decades. Republicans are like 98% of the fall guys for misbehavior in office. While possibly being just 20% of the misbehavers. If you are a dem, you can count on the spin machine defending you 999 out of 1000 times. A republican never gets the spin machine.
I guess my gripe is considering this double standard as a new development. That is all.
Amen brother. And don’t get me started on the misunderstandings around the “they did it to legally admit evidence” none sense that also comes up.
I actually did an extensive post on that a week or 2 ago. I am not sure I am buying it. But I went thru the exercise trying to figure out if that could work. Might be worth a read. Been waiting for someone to decisively tear it apart, but hasn't happened. I wrote it, but I am not totally buying it.
Send it to me (lawfag here). I must have missed it.
https://greatawakening.win/p/15JAcM1B1o/i-am-admitted-skeptic-on-this-bu/
After posting, I found some minor holes in this, but nothing I couldn’t patch up. I still don’t think I sold myself on the theory though. Would be quite interested in your response. Feel free to rip it to shreds.