This is my first time posting, so please forgive any formatting issues. TLDR to start because your time is valuable, and this is a long post.
TLDR: I have seen no evidence to support that the US is a corporation. I have seen two main forms of proof, which I dispute below. Straight forward enough?
I am posting to address a theory that circulates on here every so often. I refer to what I will call the US Corporation theory. I don’t know if supporters have a different name for it, so apologies if it has a better name.
I may be mistaken, but I have also taken the US Corporation theory to include the Sovereign Citizen movement. I do this because when they quote law, they use similar references. Also, there is a lot of overlap between the two. Please correct me in the comments if these are independent and should be treated differently.
I was inspired to post by a video link posted in the comments here today. I am not linking to the comment, or the post they commented on because I am not “calling out” the poster, or insinuating that they glow like Chernobyl. I am assuming they are good folk, and not a clown.
I also want to say the video has some good info, just definitely not what I write about below. The link was to the following video:
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=XHl4j5xF-Js&t=12s&ab_channel=RageAgainstNWO
The video made two claims in particular that stood out to me. First, that the United States became a corporation under the Organic Act of 1871. Link to the current Federal Code, 28 U.S.C. 3002, which incorporates the Act of 1781, below:
The theory points to 28 U.S.C. 3002 Section 15. I am skipping Sections (1) through (14) here. You can find them at the link above.:
- Definitions
As used in this chapter:
…
(15) "United States" means—
(A) a Federal corporation; (B) an agency, department, commission, board, or other entity of the United States; or (C) an instrumentality of the United States.
Here’s the problem with interpreting United States means a Federal Corporation. See that part right at the beginning that says: “As used in this chapter”? Those are the definitions for this chapter. Not always, and not everywhere in the US Code – only for this chapter.
Second, that the Paris Peace Treaty of 1783 confirms that the US was and is a British colony:
https://www.archives.gov/milestone-documents/treaty-of-paris
You can scroll down to see a transcript of the document. The following is the part that I think the video refers to, very first paragraph:
“It having pleased the Divine Providence to dispose the Hearts of the most Serene and most Potent Prince George the Third, by the Grace of God, King of Great Britain, France, and Ireland, Defender of the Faith, Duke of Brunswick and Lunebourg, Arch- Treasurer and Prince Elector of the Holy Roman Empire etc.. and of the United States of America, to forget all past Misunderstandings and Differences that have unhappily interrupted the good Correspondence and Friendship which they mutually wish to restore;”
The above reads as if the King of England is referred to as King or Price Elector of the United States. Keep in mind that this also says he is King of France, a country he was actively at war with, and who aided us in the Revolutionary War.
Next, go to Article 1 of the document:
“His Brittanic Majesty acknowledges the said United States, viz., New Hampshire, Massachusetts Bay, Rhode Island and Providence Plantations, Connecticut, New York, New Jersey, Pennsylvania, Delaware, Maryland, Virginia, North Carolina, South Carolina and Georgia, to be free sovereign and Independent States; that he treats with them as such, and for himself his Heirs & Successors, relinquishes all claims to the Government, Propriety, and Territorial Rights of the same and every Part thereof.
Since I can’t format on this site for shit, let me just put some emphasis of my own:
His Brittanic Majesty
acknowledges
the said Unites States
to be free and sovereign Independent States
and for himself his Heirs & Successors
relinquishes all claims to the Government, Propriety and Territorial Rights of the Same and every Part thereof.
I think that wraps up the French Treaty part of the theory.
Please feel free to send me something else to look up for this. Give me legal citations to check. If you genuinely believe the US is a corporation, I truly want to look at your sources.
I am not a lawyer, but I do work in legal. I am passionate about the law, and I do not appreciate when people claim the law says one thing when it really says something else. That’s what Demonrats do.
I believe you are spot on, and these "commerce contracts" appear to be possible because of the Roman Civil Law which is imposed in all states via the STATE OF XX CORPORATIONS that are all extensions of WASHINGTON D.C. operating under Trust#2, established in 1871. The creator of the Trust gets to decide the jurisdiction, and they chose Roman Civil Law because this is what they have been using for the last 2000 years to enslave.
Remember that the Roman Empire had legal slavery with complex legal rules around it, and one could argue that this is EXACTLY the same thing. Note that London Bankers and the Vatican are all tied to northern Italian families that know Roman Civil Law inside and out. They know all the tricks and use them quite effectively against us. It looks like they implemented the Roman Civil Law in London first, and then extended it to DC at some point. The details are still unclear, but it looks like Brexit was all about removing the UK from European Union which also looks like it is operating under Roman Civil Law and its own version of the UCC.