Corruption of the Bible: While it's true that there have been variations in biblical manuscripts over time, scholars have employed rigorous textual criticism to reconstruct the original text of the Bible as closely as possible (almost 98% accuracy). The Bible's integrity is supported by an extensive body of ancient manuscripts, including the Dead Sea Scrolls, which confirm the accuracy of many biblical texts.
OK so explain me this :
Numbers 31:17-18 (rape and murder):
17 Now therefore kill every male among the little ones, and kill every woman that hath known man by lying with him.
18 But all the women children, that have not known a man by lying with him, keep alive for yourselves.
Samuel 15:03 (infanticide and murder)
3 Now go and strike Amalek and devote to destruction1 all that they have. Do not spare them, but kill both man and woman,** child and infant**, ox and sheep, camel and donkey.’ ”
What, exactly, needs to be responded to here? I would need a little more context as to the reason why you think these verses need a response or an explanation? What, specifically, are you having a hard time understanding in these passages?
Have you ever checked out Paul Copans book “Is God a Moral Monster?“ In it he explains these passages and many more like them in their Ancient Near Eastern context. If you are serious about finding a contextual understanding of these difficult passages, then I would encourage you to check out that book.
What I have discovered in conversations about this very topic is that most people simply parrot what the new Atheists (Christopher Hitchens, Dawkins, Sam Harris, etc…) superficially claim these passages are saying.
This is why I asked you to clarify your question. Some people have a hard time reconciling these passages (and others like them) with the moral character of Yahweh. Others simply don’t understand them in their cultural context.
This discussion also requires an understanding of the role of the Nephilim and their seed throughout the Old Testament.
Paul Copans has always befuddled me. I haven't read his books, but I've listened to a number of his lectures, interviews and debates. He consistently avoids Biblical passages and proofs that are distasteful to him for which he doesn't have a good explanation. He can't bring himself to let the chips fall where they may. (If he has a good explanation in his books, I wish he'd bring it out in his lectures/interviews). The perfect example is that he never gave a straight answer to the question "Did the Israelites ever actually destroy defenseless women and children as the Bible says?" , even though his assumptions necessarily bring him to that conclusion. But he won't say it. Why not?
God is only love and compassion.
"Beloved, let us love one another, because love is of God; everyone who loves is begotten by God and knows God. Whoever is without love does not know God, for God is love"
1 John 4:7-8
PS: I'm not atheist I believe in God more than you think, and since I'm not an NPC, I try to seek out the truth.
OK so explain me this :
Numbers 31:17-18 (rape and murder):
17 Now therefore kill every male among the little ones, and kill every woman that hath known man by lying with him.
18 But all the women children, that have not known a man by lying with him, keep alive for yourselves.
Samuel 15:03 (infanticide and murder)
3 Now go and strike Amalek and devote to destruction1 all that they have. Do not spare them, but kill both man and woman,** child and infant**, ox and sheep, camel and donkey.’ ”
What, exactly, needs to be responded to here? I would need a little more context as to the reason why you think these verses need a response or an explanation? What, specifically, are you having a hard time understanding in these passages?
please don't play the fool.
Have you ever checked out Paul Copans book “Is God a Moral Monster?“ In it he explains these passages and many more like them in their Ancient Near Eastern context. If you are serious about finding a contextual understanding of these difficult passages, then I would encourage you to check out that book.
What I have discovered in conversations about this very topic is that most people simply parrot what the new Atheists (Christopher Hitchens, Dawkins, Sam Harris, etc…) superficially claim these passages are saying.
This is why I asked you to clarify your question. Some people have a hard time reconciling these passages (and others like them) with the moral character of Yahweh. Others simply don’t understand them in their cultural context.
This discussion also requires an understanding of the role of the Nephilim and their seed throughout the Old Testament.
I assure you, I am not playing the fool.
Paul Copans has always befuddled me. I haven't read his books, but I've listened to a number of his lectures, interviews and debates. He consistently avoids Biblical passages and proofs that are distasteful to him for which he doesn't have a good explanation. He can't bring himself to let the chips fall where they may. (If he has a good explanation in his books, I wish he'd bring it out in his lectures/interviews). The perfect example is that he never gave a straight answer to the question "Did the Israelites ever actually destroy defenseless women and children as the Bible says?" , even though his assumptions necessarily bring him to that conclusion. But he won't say it. Why not?
God is only love and compassion.
"Beloved, let us love one another, because love is of God; everyone who loves is begotten by God and knows God. Whoever is without love does not know God, for God is love"
1 John 4:7-8
PS: I'm not atheist I believe in God more than you think, and since I'm not an NPC, I try to seek out the truth.