"The story of modern ‘Dispensationalism’ (and hence Rapture eschatology) begins around 1825 and is associated with an Irishman by the name of John Nelson Darby. He was a clergyman in the Church of England and originated a meeting in Plymouth, England, giving rise to the name Plymouth Brethren. Darby established himself as an influential Bible teacher, and through his many writings and lecture circuits he introduced many of the features of what would come to be known as ‘Dispensationalism’.
Though a number of influential ministers and Bible teachers followed Darby’s interpretation of the Bible, the single most important figure in the subsequent growth and spread of ‘Dispensationalism’ was Cyrus I. Scofield. Scofield was a Congregationalist minister in the United States who had heard Darby lecture and embraced many of his views.
Although Scofield’s training was in law and not in theology, he prepared his own study Bible with extensive interpretive notes placed throughout the Scriptures. The Bible, known popularly as the Scofield Reference Bible, was first published in 1909 and became the single most important means in the spread of ‘Dispensationalist teaching’. Many who have used this ‘interpreted’ Bible and its second, revised edition, tend to read the Scriptures in terms of the notes and interpretive comments found throughout its pages.
Despite the recent development of ‘Dispensational Premillennialism’, and despite some evidence of a waning of its influence and popularity, this understanding of the millennium remains the majority opinion among many conservative Christians, especially in North America."
The main tenants of Classical Dispensationalism existed long before Scofield and Darby.
While classical dispensationalism as formulated by theologians like C.I. Scofield and John Nelson Darby had its distinctive features, some of its main elements can be traced to earlier theological traditions and interpretations of the Bible. Here are a few examples:
1.Distinction Between Israel and the Church:
• Early Church Fathers like Justin Martyr (2nd century) and Irenaeus (2nd century) acknowledged distinctions between God’s dealings with Israel and the Church in their writings. They recognized that God had specific plans for both groups.
2.Futurist Interpretation of Prophecy:
•The belief in future prophetic events can be traced to various interpretations of the Book of Revelation in early Christian writings. Some early Church theologians, like Hippolytus (3rd century), held views that anticipated future fulfillment of certain prophecies.
3.Premillennialism:
• The concept of a future literal thousand-year reign of Christ has been present in different forms throughout Christian history. Papias (1st century) is often cited as an early proponent of premillennialism, and it has appeared in the writings of various Church Fathers.
4.Rapture:
• While the term “rapture” was not used in the same way as in classical dispensationalism, early Christian writers such as Ephraem the Syrian (4th century) and Jerome (4th-5th century) discussed the idea of believers being caught up to meet Christ in connection with 1 Thessalonians 4:17.
While classical dispensationalism combined these elements into a systematic theological framework and popularized them in the late 19th and early 20th centuries, it’s important to recognize that many of these ideas had antecedents in Christian thought and theology prior to the Scofield Study Bible.
Dispensationalism itself has evolved over time, with variations and modifications to its original form.
Thank-you for making this point 2EyesOpen on the origins of dispensationalism. Modern dispensationalism or rapture eschatology has mislead many Christians to believe that they will not have to endure the time of the tribulation or Jacob's trouble. The rapture theory claims that the elect would be taken away before the Great Tribulation, when in actuality they are taken up AFTER the tribulation.
Matthew 24:29 to 31 makes that very clear beginning with 24:29 "Immediately AFTER the tribulation of those days shall the sun be darkened and the moon shall not giver her light and the stars shall fall from heaven, and the powers of heaven shall be shaken: 30- Then shall appear the sign of the Son of Adam in heaven: and then shall all the tribes of the earth mourn, and they shall see the Son of Adam coming in the clouds of heaven with power and great glory." (please note that the original Greek codex of the New Testament always names Jesus Christ or Yahshua as the Son of Adam NOT the Son of man. Adam was intentionally changed in the English and other language translations to generalize inclusivity. The fact remains however, that the Greek words used for our Redeemer throughout the New Testament was always Son of Adam, NEVER Son of man.) Verse 31 finally tells us that, "And He shall send His angels with a great sound of a trumpet (7th trump) and they shall gather together his elect from the four winds, from one end of heaven to the other." It is quite clear here that the elect are not raptured or taken away until the great tribulation has ended. That is why Revelation 7:14 in reference to the elect tells us that "These are they that came out of the great tribulation," Verse 31 continues on with the parable of the fig tree.
As for Christians believing that they must support the State of Israel, its important to never forget that there is a group of people on this planet whom claim to be descendants of the House of Judah that have deceived many. They have the mark and vengeance of Cain. Christians must discern who is true Jacob/Israel. Revelation 2:9 and 3:9 gives us a hint as to whom is claiming that they are Judah. The tares must be left to grow among the wheat until the appointed time. Remember John 8:44.
please note that the original Greek codex of the New Testament always names Jesus Christ or Yahshua as the Son of Adam NOT the Son of man. Adam was intentionally changed in the English and other language translations to generalize inclusivity. The fact remains however, that the Greek words used for our Redeemer throughout the New Testament was always Son of Adam, NEVER Son of man.
Do you mean that “τοῦ ἀνθρώπου” is wrong in the way of textual criticism, or do you mean that the translation of it into “son of man” in wrong?
The word ἀνθρώποs (anthropos) or MAN was never used in the original Codex written on papyrus which is not the the Greek Bible of today that also uses ἀνθρώποs. The correct word was Adam. There are other words that were changed when copies from the original were made but is not the subject matter here. To most Christian priests and ministers, this is just minutia, but for clear understanding the proper words must always be used. Using the term man infers that mankind is directly related to the Lord Jesus of the Virgin birth. Luke indicates that Adam was also the Son of God. Lk 3:38, which leads us to Jesus Christ's title as Son of Adam as in the flesh, NOT the Son of any man. In this context John 1:4 also loses all significance when we see the term "light of men" when it should be light of Adam. There is no light of men but there is the light of Adam. The light of Adam alludes to the light that was taken away from Adam after his trangression in the Garden, where afterwards, Adam bemoaned the fact that he could no longer see or hear the angels in heaven. You have to read the Masoretic texts and other Hebrew writtings to learn about the rest of that wonderful story. When Jesus the Christ was born our heavenly Father restored the light of Adam in Jesus Christ, this is why John speaks of this "light". The Lord God had made a covenant with Adam which eventually led to the birth of our Lord and Saviour. I said too much already, however, there is quite a bit more to this incredible Divine story that connects all the dots which leads to deeper understanding. If you wish further study, check out your Companion Bible and look up Appendix 14 -Synonymous Words Used for Man, where Christ is correctly called Son of Adam not Son of enosh (man) which is in accord with the original New Testament Codex.
The word ἀνθρώποs (anthropos) or MAN was never used in the original Codex written on papyrus which is not the the Greek Bible of today that also uses ἀνθρώποs.
ἀνθρώποs was abbreviated in the nominative as ΑΝΟΣ/ανος and in the genitive as ΑΝΟΥ/ανου.
If you wish further study, check out your Companion Bible and look up Appendix 14 -Synonymous Words Used for Man, where Christ is correctly called Son of Adam not Son of enosh (man) which is in accord with the original New Testament Codex.
Could you be more specific about which papyri use Adam and which codex? Codex Siniaticus has "του αν̅ο̅υ̅" in Mt 12:32 and 24:30.
You are working here with online reseach of the mistranslated text, that papyrus is not the original Codex nor have you looked up in your Companion Bible appendix 14 that gives the details which shows how Christ was called Son of Adam. Like many other things about the origins and errors in the Scriptures and censorship, you won't find that online because it changes the entire narrative of the story. You will only learn of this from a Theological Seminary that teaches advanced Biblical Studies where you have to learn old Greek, Aramaic/Chaldee, Syriac and study all of the Apocryphal books from the Christian Coptic Church. The Judaists love to call Jesus Christ the Son of man rather than the Son of Adam. Their Tradition of the Elders (Babylonian Talmud) which Christ condemned, says that Jesus was the son of a Roman soldier which supports their narrative that Jesus was only the Son of a man, and we keep on maintaining this lie with our modern Bibles.
The Greek Codex was tranlated from the much older Chaldee texts. I should have explained this to avoid all the nit-pik. The Greek versions of the New Testament were translated from the Chaldee manuscripts which used the article attached to the word Adam which meant "The Adam" not the lower form of adam without the article, being the word ENOSH for flesh being, or man, from the Chaldee as is found throughout Genesis. As such, in these texts where we see Son of man in our modern Bibles, the Chaldee version always had the article before the word Adam, showing that it was always "The Adam" of Genesis, hence, Son of Adam. Even the Syriac versions of the text in Matthew and Revelations use the term Son of Adam. In either case Christ should always be referred to as the Son of God or Son of the Adam from Genesis and never the blasphemous term of Son of a lowly man as the anti-Christian Judaic texts indicate. To persist in saying that Jesus Christ is the Son of man only supports the lie. When the Holy Spirit descended upon Yahshua/Jesus after His baptism, the Lord God in a voice from heaven did say; "This is my beloved Son in whom I am well pleased." Matt. 3:17. Can you still say that Christ is the Son of man? If you can teach someone to believe two opposites you can make them believe anything. Thus endeth the discussion. Best wishes.
This short (~30 page) article covers the same details in more depth. The first half is a summary of the major different 'schools of thought' on the subject with details on where the study notes in the Scofield Bible came from. The second half is a Bible study on what the term Israel actually means in relation to Bible prophecy.
https://www.quora.com/Who-originated-the-Rapture-eschatology-Were-Darby-and-or-Schofiel
"The story of modern ‘Dispensationalism’ (and hence Rapture eschatology) begins around 1825 and is associated with an Irishman by the name of John Nelson Darby. He was a clergyman in the Church of England and originated a meeting in Plymouth, England, giving rise to the name Plymouth Brethren. Darby established himself as an influential Bible teacher, and through his many writings and lecture circuits he introduced many of the features of what would come to be known as ‘Dispensationalism’.
Though a number of influential ministers and Bible teachers followed Darby’s interpretation of the Bible, the single most important figure in the subsequent growth and spread of ‘Dispensationalism’ was Cyrus I. Scofield. Scofield was a Congregationalist minister in the United States who had heard Darby lecture and embraced many of his views.
Although Scofield’s training was in law and not in theology, he prepared his own study Bible with extensive interpretive notes placed throughout the Scriptures. The Bible, known popularly as the Scofield Reference Bible, was first published in 1909 and became the single most important means in the spread of ‘Dispensationalist teaching’. Many who have used this ‘interpreted’ Bible and its second, revised edition, tend to read the Scriptures in terms of the notes and interpretive comments found throughout its pages.
Despite the recent development of ‘Dispensational Premillennialism’, and despite some evidence of a waning of its influence and popularity, this understanding of the millennium remains the majority opinion among many conservative Christians, especially in North America."
THANK YOU. The World needs to understand how they have been deceived about almost everything. Sad to say but truthful: Christian Zionists are CHUMPS.
The main tenants of Classical Dispensationalism existed long before Scofield and Darby.
While classical dispensationalism as formulated by theologians like C.I. Scofield and John Nelson Darby had its distinctive features, some of its main elements can be traced to earlier theological traditions and interpretations of the Bible. Here are a few examples:
1.Distinction Between Israel and the Church:
2.Futurist Interpretation of Prophecy:
3.Premillennialism:
4.Rapture:
While classical dispensationalism combined these elements into a systematic theological framework and popularized them in the late 19th and early 20th centuries, it’s important to recognize that many of these ideas had antecedents in Christian thought and theology prior to the Scofield Study Bible. Dispensationalism itself has evolved over time, with variations and modifications to its original form.
Totally agree!!
Thank-you for making this point 2EyesOpen on the origins of dispensationalism. Modern dispensationalism or rapture eschatology has mislead many Christians to believe that they will not have to endure the time of the tribulation or Jacob's trouble. The rapture theory claims that the elect would be taken away before the Great Tribulation, when in actuality they are taken up AFTER the tribulation.
Matthew 24:29 to 31 makes that very clear beginning with 24:29 "Immediately AFTER the tribulation of those days shall the sun be darkened and the moon shall not giver her light and the stars shall fall from heaven, and the powers of heaven shall be shaken: 30- Then shall appear the sign of the Son of Adam in heaven: and then shall all the tribes of the earth mourn, and they shall see the Son of Adam coming in the clouds of heaven with power and great glory." (please note that the original Greek codex of the New Testament always names Jesus Christ or Yahshua as the Son of Adam NOT the Son of man. Adam was intentionally changed in the English and other language translations to generalize inclusivity. The fact remains however, that the Greek words used for our Redeemer throughout the New Testament was always Son of Adam, NEVER Son of man.) Verse 31 finally tells us that, "And He shall send His angels with a great sound of a trumpet (7th trump) and they shall gather together his elect from the four winds, from one end of heaven to the other." It is quite clear here that the elect are not raptured or taken away until the great tribulation has ended. That is why Revelation 7:14 in reference to the elect tells us that "These are they that came out of the great tribulation," Verse 31 continues on with the parable of the fig tree.
As for Christians believing that they must support the State of Israel, its important to never forget that there is a group of people on this planet whom claim to be descendants of the House of Judah that have deceived many. They have the mark and vengeance of Cain. Christians must discern who is true Jacob/Israel. Revelation 2:9 and 3:9 gives us a hint as to whom is claiming that they are Judah. The tares must be left to grow among the wheat until the appointed time. Remember John 8:44.
Do you mean that “τοῦ ἀνθρώπου” is wrong in the way of textual criticism, or do you mean that the translation of it into “son of man” in wrong?
Mark 13:26 and Daniel 7:13 are related passages.
The word ἀνθρώποs (anthropos) or MAN was never used in the original Codex written on papyrus which is not the the Greek Bible of today that also uses ἀνθρώποs. The correct word was Adam. There are other words that were changed when copies from the original were made but is not the subject matter here. To most Christian priests and ministers, this is just minutia, but for clear understanding the proper words must always be used. Using the term man infers that mankind is directly related to the Lord Jesus of the Virgin birth. Luke indicates that Adam was also the Son of God. Lk 3:38, which leads us to Jesus Christ's title as Son of Adam as in the flesh, NOT the Son of any man. In this context John 1:4 also loses all significance when we see the term "light of men" when it should be light of Adam. There is no light of men but there is the light of Adam. The light of Adam alludes to the light that was taken away from Adam after his trangression in the Garden, where afterwards, Adam bemoaned the fact that he could no longer see or hear the angels in heaven. You have to read the Masoretic texts and other Hebrew writtings to learn about the rest of that wonderful story. When Jesus the Christ was born our heavenly Father restored the light of Adam in Jesus Christ, this is why John speaks of this "light". The Lord God had made a covenant with Adam which eventually led to the birth of our Lord and Saviour. I said too much already, however, there is quite a bit more to this incredible Divine story that connects all the dots which leads to deeper understanding. If you wish further study, check out your Companion Bible and look up Appendix 14 -Synonymous Words Used for Man, where Christ is correctly called Son of Adam not Son of enosh (man) which is in accord with the original New Testament Codex.
ἀνθρώποs was abbreviated in the nominative as ΑΝΟΣ/ανος and in the genitive as ΑΝΟΥ/ανου.
Here's papyri 𝔓21 of Matthew 12:32 which has "[υυ] του ανου" where [υυ] is an abbreviate used for ὑιός. https://ntvmr.uni-muenster.de/manuscript-workspace/?docID=10021
Could you be more specific about which papyri use Adam and which codex? Codex Siniaticus has "του αν̅ο̅υ̅" in Mt 12:32 and 24:30.
You are working here with online reseach of the mistranslated text, that papyrus is not the original Codex nor have you looked up in your Companion Bible appendix 14 that gives the details which shows how Christ was called Son of Adam. Like many other things about the origins and errors in the Scriptures and censorship, you won't find that online because it changes the entire narrative of the story. You will only learn of this from a Theological Seminary that teaches advanced Biblical Studies where you have to learn old Greek, Aramaic/Chaldee, Syriac and study all of the Apocryphal books from the Christian Coptic Church. The Judaists love to call Jesus Christ the Son of man rather than the Son of Adam. Their Tradition of the Elders (Babylonian Talmud) which Christ condemned, says that Jesus was the son of a Roman soldier which supports their narrative that Jesus was only the Son of a man, and we keep on maintaining this lie with our modern Bibles.
The Greek Codex was tranlated from the much older Chaldee texts. I should have explained this to avoid all the nit-pik. The Greek versions of the New Testament were translated from the Chaldee manuscripts which used the article attached to the word Adam which meant "The Adam" not the lower form of adam without the article, being the word ENOSH for flesh being, or man, from the Chaldee as is found throughout Genesis. As such, in these texts where we see Son of man in our modern Bibles, the Chaldee version always had the article before the word Adam, showing that it was always "The Adam" of Genesis, hence, Son of Adam. Even the Syriac versions of the text in Matthew and Revelations use the term Son of Adam. In either case Christ should always be referred to as the Son of God or Son of the Adam from Genesis and never the blasphemous term of Son of a lowly man as the anti-Christian Judaic texts indicate. To persist in saying that Jesus Christ is the Son of man only supports the lie. When the Holy Spirit descended upon Yahshua/Jesus after His baptism, the Lord God in a voice from heaven did say; "This is my beloved Son in whom I am well pleased." Matt. 3:17. Can you still say that Christ is the Son of man? If you can teach someone to believe two opposites you can make them believe anything. Thus endeth the discussion. Best wishes.
Great video, thank you for sharing.
This short (~30 page) article covers the same details in more depth. The first half is a summary of the major different 'schools of thought' on the subject with details on where the study notes in the Scofield Bible came from. The second half is a Bible study on what the term Israel actually means in relation to Bible prophecy.
https://digitalcommons.andrews.edu/jats/vol3/iss1/8/ Israel in Bible Prophecy by Gerhard F. Hasel, Andrews University
The Scofield Bible—The Book That Made Zionists of America’s Evangelical Christians By Maidhc Ó Cathail
https://www.wrmea.org/2015-october/the-scofield-bible-the-book-that-made-zionists-of-americas-evangelical-christians.html
Good work.
Yells in John Hagee! REEEEEEEEE
Probably on the 10%-big-guy-list