If Gates, through his agents, acting under his employment, committed malfeasance against Dutch citizens, I think he would be held liable. What happens after that is a question. Suppose he had simply beaten up these people and skipped the country as a fugitive criminal? How would that be different?
If Gates, through his agents, acting under his employment, committed malfeasance against Dutch citizens, I think he would be held liable. What happens after that is a question. Suppose he had simply beaten up these people and skipped the country as a fugitive criminal? How would that be different?