NO FRANCIS! THAT'S NOT HAPPENING
(media.greatawakening.win)
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You are not entirely correct about that.
"Controversy has surrounded one particular text that is linked with the Aramaic nickname name כפא (Cepha), meaning "rock," that Jesus gave the man previously known as Simon.[John 1:42] The Greeks translated it as Πέτρος (Petros), a new form, appropriately masculine, of the standard feminine word πέτρα (petra), also meaning "rock;" and the Latins translated it as Petrus.[4]
While the reasons for disagreement on the nature of the primacy are complex, hinging on matters of doctrine, history and politics, the debate is often reduced to a discussion of the meaning and translation of Matthew 16:18: "And I say to thee: That thou art Peter; and upon this rock I will build my church, and the gates of hell shall not prevail against it." Matthew 16:18, Douay-Rheims Bible
In the Greek text, the new name given is Πέτρος (Petros), and in the second half of the same verse the word translated as "rock" is πέτρα (petra). A literal translation, in the style of the King James Version, of the words presumably used by Jesus would be "Thou art Rock, and upon this rock will I build my church".[5] To preserve a supposed pun, the Greek text chose to translate Peter's name as "Πέτρος" rather than as "Κηφᾶς" (Cephas).
One common Protestant argument historically has been that the translation from the New Testament in Hebrew into Greek is tenuous at best as there is no real evidence or indication that the New Testament (in Greek) was ever translated from Hebrew or Aramaic texts; for that argument see Aramaic primacy. According to the Protestant transliteration argument,[citation needed] in the language that Jesus spoke, the same word, כפא (cepha), was used for both Peter's name and for the rock on which Jesus said he would build his church. Since the Protestant Reformation, many non-Catholics have challenged the Catholic Church's position, questioning whether the feminine πέτρα refers to Peter, and claiming it may instead refer to either Peter's confession of faith or to Jesus himself.[6][7] "
I don’t see that what you have written has proven your point at all.
And now for my other point. Where did peter ever claim to be HEAD of the church? He only ever refers to himself as an apostle and a servant.
Edit: are you so christian you need to downvote opposing viewpoints? I have not been rude to you.
The pope isn't the head of the church, that would be Christ.
The pope is the vicar of christ. His earthly representative. The steward of the church.
"Keys to the kingdom" is a reference to isaiah 22:22. He is establishing peter as the churches steward.
Fair point, but Peter never claimed preeminence over any of the other apostles.
Its hard to speak on what peter did or didn't say on the matter because so few of his words are recorded after this point. There are two possible sources of clues. The Acts of the Apostles and writings of early Christians.
In Acts 15 we see the Apostles holding the first council on the topic of circumcision. There is much dispute until Peter stands up to speak. He speaks with authority and the bishops fall silent and listen. This is the authority which we believe that the pope was given. He can't say anything he wants. He is not a king. But when there is a dispute among the bishops his words carry authority and strongly influence the bishops. The decision is then made by all the bishops.
There is some evidence among the letters of the early Christians that Peters office held other responsibilities such as coordinating the bishops and disseminating writings to the other bishops.
I don't have the time to go through all the writings of the church fathers with you, but I will point out this one: https://www.newadvent.org/fathers/0103303.htm
It was written around 180 and lists the succession of specifically peters office on account of its preeminent authority.
What makes you assume it's me downvoting? Somebody else probably disagrees, that seems the most logical thing here.