Legal then vs now
(media.greatawakening.win)
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No it does not. Legality is dictated by law. Where there is no law it becomes a legal gray area. Not to mention the purpose of this post claims laws don't guide human decency and morality and that's disingenuous. Often times that's why the law comes into existence.
My point is, you can't call the law "immoral" or "unjust" if there was no law governing a practice.
If it's not illegal and under a legal"gray area" it can be morally abhorrent and still break no laws.
Ambiguity makes it technically legal
Though the examples given in the post probably warrant a different wording then"legal"