Edit: My concerns stated here are false. I blame global warming. Thanks to Cucumber for working over the details with me.
I hate to dump cold water on this, but it looks like this is not a chart based on equal numbers of all categories (unvaxxed, 1 dose, 2 doses, 3 doses). It's based on 100k cases total. Therefore, if the clear majority of the population is double-vaxxed, it only makes sense that their numbers are higher.
Let's make sure we grasp the facts before forwarding this to all our normie friends.
It's plotted as per/100,000, isn't it? This makes it comparable. If totals were used, because there are more "vaxxed", there would appear to be much larger numbers. (but I haven't closely studied the graph)
The title of the chart states: "...age-standardized case rate per 100,000 individuals by vaccine status." This means the results are "organized" by vaccine status, not that 100,000 cases were tested "per" vaccine status.
age-standardized case rate per 100,000 individuals by vaccine status.
So the rate of cases 100,000 individuals is showing that those that are double-vaccinated are having higher rates of Covid-19 than the unvaccinated.
Where is your breakdown that there was an unequal number of double-vaccinated studied in this article than with the rest of the population?
They did not explicitly say this did they? The population of double-vaccinated may be higher than unvaccinated but the population of Scotland is not 100,000 people. Where in the pdf source that I linked to does it say of the 100,000 people studied:
Please see the fine italicized print under the chart. The final sentence reads: "Age-standardised case rates are per 100,000 people per week, standardised to the 2013 European Standard Population (see Appendix 6)".
This means they are testing 100,000 people per week, not per status per week. Nowhere in the document does it reference 400,000 people were tested.
Edit: My concerns stated here are false. I blame global warming. Thanks to Cucumber for working over the details with me.
I hate to dump cold water on this, but it looks like this is not a chart based on equal numbers of all categories (unvaxxed, 1 dose, 2 doses, 3 doses). It's based on 100k cases total. Therefore, if the clear majority of the population is double-vaxxed, it only makes sense that their numbers are higher.
Let's make sure we grasp the facts before forwarding this to all our normie friends.
It's plotted as per/100,000, isn't it? This makes it comparable. If totals were used, because there are more "vaxxed", there would appear to be much larger numbers. (but I haven't closely studied the graph)
Could you please point on what page it says that? To fight disinformation we must source our facts.
The title of the chart states: "...age-standardized case rate per 100,000 individuals by vaccine status." This means the results are "organized" by vaccine status, not that 100,000 cases were tested "per" vaccine status.
age-standardized case rate per 100,000 individuals by vaccine status.
So the rate of cases 100,000 individuals is showing that those that are double-vaccinated are having higher rates of Covid-19 than the unvaccinated.
Where is your breakdown that there was an unequal number of double-vaccinated studied in this article than with the rest of the population?
They did not explicitly say this did they? The population of double-vaccinated may be higher than unvaccinated but the population of Scotland is not 100,000 people. Where in the pdf source that I linked to does it say of the 100,000 people studied:
X are unvaccinated
X are single dose
X are double vaccinated...
etc
Please see the fine italicized print under the chart. The final sentence reads: "Age-standardised case rates are per 100,000 people per week, standardised to the 2013 European Standard Population (see Appendix 6)".
This means they are testing 100,000 people per week, not per status per week. Nowhere in the document does it reference 400,000 people were tested.