They are trying to push this shit it in our schools. They use Hollywood to set the example. The complete Satanic picture is forming itself.
(media.greatawakening.win)
🤢 These people are sick! 🤮
John 4:22 Should be:
"You worship what you do not know; we worship what we know, for salvation is of the Judeans."
It's rather easy to decipher the correct word in any verse by looking at whether it is a noun, verb, or adjective. The Greek word is 'ioudaios' (Ἰουδαῖος) and is an adjective. An adjective is any word that modify a noun and pronoun, mainly by describing a particular quality of the word they are modifying.
The word 'Judean' is correct because it is an adjective. The word 'Jew" is always used as a noun.
The Textus Receptus derives from the Later Greek Texts, but it is also indirectly influenced by the Pharisaic Masoretic Text. The King James Version was derived from the Textus Receptus, Early English Translations, and the Masoretic Text. The Early English Translations were derived from the Latin Vulgate and Masoretic Text. There is a double influence of Masoretic Texts to the King James Bible.
There are several Lexicons. The most popular is Strong's Concordance. The best Lexicon is Liddel-Scott-Jones (LSJ). A number of years ago, I bid online for a LSJ Lexicon after the price exceeded a $1000 I folded. There is an online LSJ produced by Tufts University and its called "Perseus". In the past, its been rather fickle in using it.
Ok so the 1611 was correct by using the word Iewes. The dispensationalists will say it's jews without the j.
But that begs the question was salvation of the Judeans? They were residents of different races. It gets tricky.
The people that say "out of" use the work EK and they cross reference old and new testament scriptures.
Old English writings didn't us "J". It is a later creation. As I said the Greek word is in the adjective form. This is important for the reason why the adjective word 'Judean' fits the translation. If we used the word Judahite that would be a noun. Unfortunately, it must be an adjective word, which brings us back to the word 'Judaean'. We know the word Jew (Iewe) is an English creation. I mentioned earlier the 3 sources to which the 1611 KJV was derived. One of those sources is the Latin Vulgate, which most certainly used 'Judaean', since this was the name Rome called the province.
My point here is the KJV, albeit is a good source to start with, it is not a source to rely on. All bibles are corrupted, but the older ones are better than the modern versions. One must always dig deeper. I have even found the Old Jerusalem bible (pre-1964) as a good accompanying source. Just know the word 'Jew' never existed in the Christian bible prior to its translation into English. The word 'Jew' is from Yiddish origins and is a mistranslation and mis-identity of Yids being Judahites. Yiddish people are essentially the Ashkenazi branch of Judaism that originates in Khazaria (today's Ukraine). When the Khazarian empire fell there was a large western movement to which many settled in Germany and the Netherlands and later England. History records Khazarians often were name stealers. Recently. Clif High provided a video dealing with this subject. So, is it surprising there might have been some deceit claiming they were descendants of Judah?