A Top Russian Official Quoted the Book of Revelation to Describe What Will Soon Happen to America
(noqreport.com)
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"New age"? Judaism is actually a newer religion than Christianity is, but that's certainly an interesting statement [you made]. In regards to the name "Jew", it has been intermingled with the words 'Israelite', 'Judahite', 'Judean', 'pharisee', and 'Edomite' for over 400 years. It's use in the Bible is ambiguous and unfortunately needs to be deciphered for every verse that it is used. Some times it refers to the Roman province of Judea, other times it refers more accurately to Edomites. Other times it references 'Israelites".
This is interesting when you wrote-- "By Jew i mean and only mean the line a Judah,..."
I'll use this and make a couple substitutions --- 'By American I mean and only mean the line of America'. Does that mean everyone living in America is from the same of people? Of course it doesn't and we shouldn't expect someone living in Judea is necessarily from the line of Judah either. By the time Jesus arrived, the Judea was a multitude of people and the dominate population were the Edomites. Why do I say this? King Herod himself was an Edomite. One doesn't rise to power of a king unless there is kinship of those people. Herod contributed heavily to the temple in Jerusalem. It was even referred to 'Herod's temple'. Then we have this from the Jewish Encyclopedia, 1925 edition, Vol. 5, Page 41, which states -- "Edom is in modern Jewry". Jesus resided in Galilee, an Israelite enclave to which his disciples came from. When I said -- the name 'Jew' has been intermingled with the words 'Israelite', 'Judahite', 'Judean', 'pharisee', and 'Edomite' for over 400 years, I mean that prior to that it didn't exist. It is only from the English 1600s this word came into existence. And because of this, it's use in the Bible is ambiguous and confusing. Unfortunately every verse that is used has to be deciphered that it is used. Some times it refers to the Roman province of Judea, other times it refers more accurately to Edomites. Other times it references 'Israelites".
Judah is the Latin name given to the region by the Romans. Formerly, it was called Idumea by the Greeks, which means -- 'land of the Edomites'. Judah is the land to which Judah and his descendants resided until the Babylonians conquered Judah with the help of their Edomites allies. Soon Babylon dispossessed the inhabitants of their land removed them into captivity to Babylonia. King Nebuchadnezzar rewarded the Edomites with the spoils of war giving them the homes, the shops, the farms, the orchards, the properties, and more that once belonged to the descendants of Judah. By the time a small remnant returned, we read that they were greatly harassed by the inhabitants living there. Josephus tells us it was the Edomites, who lived there. Later, we read -- “The Edomites were conquered by John Hyrcanus who forcibly converted them to Judaism, and from then on they constituted a part of the Jewish people, Herod being one of their descendants”, The Standard Jewish Encyclopedia, (Garden City, NY: Doubleday & Company, Inc., 1966), pg. 594, AS WELL AS in the The New Standard Jewish Encyclopedia (Garden City, NY: Doubleday & Company, Inc., 1977) p. 589. There's muchmore information to the ambiguous meaning and usage of Jew. In regards to present day Jews over 90% are Ashkenazi Jews. If we search for this word in the bible, we find Ashkenaz, who is the first son of Gomer. Gomer is the eldest son of Japheth, son of Noah in the Bible. In Jeremiah 51:27, a kingdom of Ashkenaz was to be called together with Ararat and Minni against Babylon. Ashkenaz was one of the migratory peoples in the time of Esar-haddon, made themselves known in the northern provinces of Asia Minor, and upon Armenia. This matches the same region as the Khazars later on. Ever wonder why today the inhabitants of Israel call themselves Israeli? The Jewish Encyclopedia IV, 1902, p 335 states-- "Strictly speaking, it is incorrect to call an ancient Israelite a 'Jew' or to call a contemporary Jew an 'Israelite' or a 'Hebrew'".
Yes, Judah was a person and the land of his posterity was called Judah until the posterity was forcibly and completely removed from that land to Babylonia. The word Jew never really derived from Judah and certainly did not exist during the Roman times as I will explain in the following paragraph..
Rome referred to the region as 'Judea' from the Latin 'Iudaea', which is derived from the Greek 'Idumea'; "land of Edomites" and those people of the region as 'Judeans'. From the time of conquest by Alexander the Great, the region was called Idumea. The influence of the Greeks in the entire Levant was so culturally dominating that the written paleo-Hebrew was threatened. As a result, the Greek Septuagint was written in 256 BC. The international language throughout the eastern Mediterranean was koine Greek. Without records, it is plausible that Jesus may have read from the Greek Septuagint. We don't know for sure. Nevertheless, the Romans readily accepted the Greek influence existing there and added their own Latin version. The Romans simply used the Latinized version ('Iudaea') of the Greek 'Idumea'.
Much later the word Jew comes into existence in England in circa 1600s, which coincides with a wave of Yiddish immigrants coming from France and Deutschland. Originally the English term 'Jewry' referred to those immigrants coming from Eastern European people who spoke Yiddish (Ashkenazi). A French derogatory term for 'ghetto' and the Yiddish district of town was called -- 'Jeuerie'; "ghetto", from Anglo-French 'Juerie', Old French 'Juierie' or the later English version 'Jewry'. The word 'Jew' did not exist during the Roman times. Even Pontius Pilate inscribed a title in Latin on the torture stake that properly translated reads - "Jesus the Nazerene King of the Judeans". From the above entymology of the word Judean, we find the plaque was far more derogatory to the death of our Savior than people realize. The real translation is -- "Jesus the Nazerene King of the Idumeans (Edomites)."