No matter what your opinion on Yiannopoulos or Jews in general is, this is a fact. And to me, that's hilarious.
Here you can read up on Yiannopoulos talking about his Jewish identity on the Jewish-run website jewishjournal.com.
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We're studying the book of Acts in bible study now, and this reminded me of Paul circumcising Timothy before he set out to preach with Paul. Timothy's mother was Jewish, but his father was Greek (and people knew that), so Timothy wasn't circumcised. Paul wanted him to be accepted by the Jews and people would be more inclined to listen if he were circumcised like the Jews. Which begs the question....were all the dudes in biblical days constantly dropping trough and proving whether or not they've been clipped??
The word 'Jew' didn't exist in any biblical texts prior to the 1600s. This word has been intermingled with the words 'Israelite', 'Judahite', 'Judean', 'pharisee', and 'Edomite' for over 400 years. It's use in the Bible is ambiguous and unfortunately needs to be deciphered for every verse that it is used. Some times it refers to the Roman province of Judea, other times it refers more accurately to Edomites. Other times it references 'Israelites".
The word Jew never really derived from Judah and certainly did not exist during the Roman times as I will explain in the following paragraph..
Rome referred to the region as 'Judea' from the Latin 'Iudaea', which is derived from the Greek 'Idumea'; "land of Edomites" and those people of the region as 'Judeans'. From the time of conquest by Alexander the Great, the region was called 'Idumea'. The influence of the Greeks in the entire Levant was so culturally dominating that the written paleo-Hebrew was becoming lost. As a result, the Greek Septuagint was written in 256 BC. The international language throughout the eastern Mediterranean was koine Greek. Without records, it is plausible that Jesus may have read from the Greek Septuagint. We don't know for sure. Nevertheless, the Romans readily accepted the Greek influence existing there and added their own Latin version. The Romans simply used the Latinized version ('Iudaea') of the Greek 'Idumea'.
Much later the word Jew comes into existence in England in circa 1600s, which coincides with a wave of Yiddish immigrants coming from France and Deutschland. Originally the English term 'Jewry' referred to those immigrants coming from Eastern European people who spoke Yiddish (Ashkenazi). A French derogatory term for 'ghetto' and the Yiddish district of town was called -- 'Jeuerie'; "ghetto", from Anglo-French 'Juerie', Old French 'Juierie' or the later English version 'Jewry'. The word 'Jew' did not exist during the Roman times. Even Pontius Pilate inscribed a title in Latin on the torture stake that properly translated reads - "Jesus the Nazerene King of the Judeans". From the above etymology of the word Judean, we find the plaque was far more derogatory to the death of our Savior than people realize. The real translation is -- "Jesus the Nazerene King of the Idumeans (Edomites)."
Let's complicate matters a bit.
Wikipedia, Sea of Galilee.
g'lil ha-goyím
Interesting.
I'll add to your complicated matter. You are basing this translation on 'Neo-Hebrew', which is the so-called 'Hebrew' writing used today. However, it is not in anyway the written Hebrew of the ancient Israelites. 'Neo-Hebrew' and is a made-up concocted language based on Arabic and other existing Canaanitish languages. The ancient Israelites spoke the language of Eber (paleo-Hebrew) and would not understand a word of neo-Hebrew spoken today. In fact, Hebrew was not used as a spoken language for roughly 2300 years. It was 'revived' as a spoken language by the efforts of a single man, Eliezer Ben-Yehuda (1858-1922). Ben-Yehuda, previously an ardent revolutionary in Tsarist Russia, had joined the Jewish national movement and emigrated to Palestine in 1881. He was Ashkenazi or Khazar coming out of the Pale or Settlement. These were people that were forcibly converted to Judaism under the rule of Bulan Sabriel, the Great Kagan of Khazaria in circa 750 AD. The name Bulan means "elk" or "hart" in Old Turkic. Certainly, Hebrew was never spoken at this time.
Look up "Hebrew" and even Wikipedia tells us that the written Hebrew of modern times (neo-Hebrew) is not paleo-Hebrew. Paleo-Hebrew is the original writings of the books of the Old Testament (OT). Unfortunately, paleo-Hebrew was lost to antiquity.
Modern written Hebrew is based on the work by the Masoretes in 900 AD. Who are the Masoretes? They are Pharisaic Jews (Pharisees), who recreated a new written 'Hebrew' from Arabic and other existing Canaanitish languages because the original Hebrew was long lost in antiquity. The Masoretes used the Greek Septuagint Old Testament to create a new written 'Hebrew' that had vowel points.
The oldest Bible OT there is the Septuagint, which was transliterated from the original paleo-Hebrew in circa 285 BC. The original Hebrew written language was by that time becoming extinct.
According to tradition, it was Ptolemy Philadelphus, who purchased the freedom of Israelites in his territories, arranged for 6 scholars from each of the 12 tribes to translate the first 5 books of the Old Testament from paleo-Hebrew into Greek around 285 BC. By this time a practical knowledge of the Hebrew written language was all but lost.
The original written Hebrew consisted only of consonants and relied on an oral knowledge to decipher the consonant only words. For example, think of the word 'cat' and remove the vowel. It becomes 'ct'. Without the vowel, the word 'ct' could be cat, cot, cut, cute, acute, coat, etc. An individual of knowledge would be required to orally teach others what the word 'ct' was. This is how the priestly class taught and passed on the writings of the bible. The paleo-Hebrew writings were designed for the bible deciphering. This is how the Hebrew written language was passed down generation after generation. It was central to understanding the bible.
With the written Hebrew language being greatly eclipsed and dominated by the very popular Greek language, which was the international language of the day, Hebrew was in danger of being lost. Ptolemy gathered together 72 scholars and in a short period of time they completed the Pentateuch. The Pentateuch is from Greek pentáteuchos and is the first five books of the Old Testament. The Latin name 'Septuagint' means 70, and was later applied to the translation in circa 1555 AD, for there was approximately 70 translators. This is also the reason why the abbreviation 'LXX' is used. After the first 5 books were finished, the translators set out to work on the rest of the OT. The exact date this was accomplished is not known, but it is certain the complete OT was finished within 100 years and it is likely it was completed within a few years by the same translators.
In regards to your Galilee statement, I believe you came to the remarkable conclusion of how the Israelites ended up as a community in Galilee. Notwithstanding, it was plausibly for either those two reasons. Jerusalem and the rest of the Roman province, to which the Romans referred to using the Latin term 'Judea' was by that time a "mixed" population predominantly ruled by the Edomites. Herod himself was an Edomite. One doesn't rise to power of a king unless there is an ethnic kinship representing those people. It is in the interest of the Romans to maintain this to keep the people pacified. Also, the temple in Jerusalem was referred to 'Herod's temple' because Herod's massive temple was the lodestar to the Phariseic cultic, oral religion. Everything happened in the temple complex. Then we have this. In 134 BC, we read- “The Edomites were conquered by John Hyrcanus who forcibly converted them to Judaism, and from then on they constituted a part of the Jewish people, Herod being one of their descendants”, The Standard Jewish Encyclopedia, (Garden City, NY: Doubleday & Company, Inc., 1966), pg. 594, as well as in the The New Standard Jewish Encyclopedia (Garden City, NY: Doubleday & Company, Inc., 1977) p. 589. Also, "From this time the Idumeans [read: Edomites] became an inseparable part of the Jewish people”, Encyclopedia Judaica Jerusalem, in Volume 8, page 1147. As I have stated before, the word 'Jew' has been confused with the words 'Israelite', 'Judahite', 'Judean', 'pharisee', and 'Edomite' for over 400 years. It's use in the Bible is ambiguous and unfortunately needs to be deciphered for every verse that it is used. Some times it refers to the Roman province of Judea, a Latin term, based on the Greek 'Idumea', which means the 'land of the Edomites'. Sometimes the word 'Jew' refers more accurately to Edomites. Other times it references 'Israelites".
From the Jewish Encyclopedia, 1925 edition, Vol. 5, Page 41, which states -- "Edom is in modern Jewry". Another quote states-- "Jews began in the 19th century to call themselves Hebrews and Israelites in 1860". – Encyclopedia Judaica 1971 Vol 10:23. And lastly, "Strictly speaking, it is incorrect to call an ancient Israelite a 'Jew' or to call a contemporary Jew an 'Israelite' or a 'Hebrew'"-- 1980 Jewish Almanac, 1st chapter "Identity Crisis".