For anyone interested here’s the stated criteria for proving it. I don’t know enough to say too much but #4 seems weird. Why would the virus cause identical sickness in different people? Almost everything we do to our bodies acts differently in different people. I wouldn’t expect a virus to affect a 90 year old the same as a 20 year old.
The following experiments would need to be successfully completed before the viral theory can be deemed factual:
a unique particle with the characteristics of a virus is purified from the tissues or fluids of a sick living being. The purification method to be used is at the discretion of the virologists but electron micrographs must be provided to confirm the successful purification of morphologically-identical alleged viral particles;
the purified particle is biochemically characterized for its protein components and genetic sequence;
the proteins are proven to be coded for by these same genetic sequences;
the purified viral particles alone, through a natural exposure route, are shown to cause identical sickness
in test subjects, by using valid controls;
particles must then be successfully re-isolated (through purification) from the test subject at 4 above, and demonstrated to have exactly the same characteristics as the particles found in step 1
For anyone interested here’s the stated criteria for proving it. I don’t know enough to say too much but #4 seems weird. Why would the virus cause identical sickness in different people? Almost everything we do to our bodies acts differently in different people. I wouldn’t expect a virus to affect a 90 year old the same as a 20 year old.
The following experiments would need to be successfully completed before the viral theory can be deemed factual: