This year also feels extraordinary for the Jewish and Assyrian communities of faith, as for the first time since 33 A.D., the Pesach Seder (Passover Dinner), which corresponds to the Last Supper in Catholic traditions, fell on the exact same day (Wednesday evening). 2026 marks the first such occurrence in the modern era under the calendars of both faiths, given there have been no instances of the full triple alignment (full moon + Pesach/15 Nisan beginning at sunset + Holy Thursday in the earlier Catholic sunset reckoning) on a Wednesday night since 33 A.D.
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"Well, that changes the Good Friday the Catholic church has taught for centuries."
Yeah, on opposite day maybe
Literally all four of the Gospels tell us that Jesus was crucified on the day of preparation, which is a Friday.
"Three days and three nights" is a Hebrew idiom, it doesn't literally mean three 24 hour days.
Jesus Himself stated in Matthew that the only proof He would give that He was the Messiah is that, just as Jonah was in the belly of the whale for three days and three nights, He would be in the earth for three days and three nights.
Friday afternoon until Sunday morning before light is not three days and three nights. The Crucifixion happened on Wednesday. There was a holy day treated as a sabbath on Thursday. The women bought spices on Friday. One book says they had to wait until after the sabbath to buy spices. Another says they bought spices before the sabbath. This proves that there were two sabbaths in that week. Saturday was the weekly sabbath. Jesus rose at the end of the sabbath at sunset, not on Sunday morning. The women found the empty tomb on the first day of the week while it was yet dark. That was probably around 10 hours after the Resurrection, when the stone had rolled away, and the Roman soldiers had fled. It was already quiet when the women arrived and discovered the open and empty tomb.
"Literally" three days and three nights is actually three days and three nights. The day of preparation was for the holy day that fell on Thursday.
I have read and studied the Bible since 1966, and I know what it actually says.
But Sunday began at Sunset (Saturday) in the Hebrew Calender
https://greatawakening.win/p/1ASZD1GzIn/x/c/4eaW41hcBVg
Among us who have been reading and studying the Bible about that long and know what it actually says, let's be cautious. There are many more verses about literally "on the third day" than about three days and three nights. The verses about the spices don't say exactly what you said, and no text calls the rest day a "Sabbath", nor its prior day a "Preparation Day". I'd be happy to negotiate details with you.
"I have read and studied the Bible since 1966, and I know what it actually says."
Really? So surely you know of Esther 4:16 saying that she will spend "three days and nights without food or drink" and then appear to the king? Only for Esther 5:1 to say that "the third day came" and she appeared to the king? If "three days and three nights" LITERALLY MEANT A 72 HOUR PERIOD, then Esther wouldn't have seen the king until the fourth day.
1 Samuel 30:12-13 says the Egyptian hadn't had water for "three days and three nights". But you can't live for four days without water. Not only that, but the Egyptian then says "three days ago" his master abandoned him. If he had been out there for "three days and three nights" then he would have said that he was abandoned four days ago.
Paul says in 1 Corinthians 15:4 that Christ "rose again on the third day". Not the FOURTH DAY, the third day. "Three days and three nights" is a Hebrew idiom meaning "about three days". It doesn't literally mean 72 hours. I don't really care how long you claim to have studied the Bible if you don't understand how Hebrew poetry and expressions work. There are a slew of Hebrew expressions in the Bible that if translated literally make no sense. When king Saul went into the cave to "cover his feet" did he literally cover his feet? Or was he relieving himself like that expression actually means in Hebrew slang?
It's the third day following, not including today. That's how it's always been understood.
How could it be that the women bought spices after the Sabbath (Saturday), yet were able to show up at the tomb "while it was yet dark" early Sunday morning? I don't think they could have bought spices in the middle of the night.
The actual words of the Bible matter. Jesus said that the only proof that He was the Messiah was that He would be in the earth for three days and three nights, just the same as Jonah was in the belly of the great fish for three days and three nights. It was stated as literal fact.
That fourth day you speak of is just a modern convention, mostly used to explain away the lie of the Catholic church about "Good Friday." They emphasize Jesus' death, not His Resurrection. The "third day" and "four days ago" didn't mean then what you think it means today. What matters is what the original Hebrew and Greek says, which the KJV is most accurate at translating.
There were 2 holy days that week. First day of unleavened bread was Friday and the Saturday Sabbath. The day of preparation would have been Thursday for both holy days.
Please go and read the Bible if the days were consecutive then there would be no possibility of the women buying and preparing spices. The CHURCH has lied to us for nigh on 2000 years.
Jesus was crucified on Wednesday, the last supper was Tuesday evening, on the Wednesday evening the Passover Meal is eaten - Gods days - check the wording in Genesis 1 - fun from sundown to sundown. If you read the gospels you will see the Priests did not want to enter to Pilate palace for fear of defiling themselves and thus could not eat the Passover meal that evening.
Jesus was placed into the tomb as the High Sabbath was beginning and remained until the end of the weekly Sabbath three days and three nights 72 hours later exactly as Jesus told the Pharisees who were demanding a sign from Him - so if He wasn't there 72 hours he lied and that would have immediately nullify what He achieved on the cross, in which case our salvation just evaporated.
I belie He was crucified on a Wednesday also but it has no bearing on our salvation.
https://greatawakening.win/p/1ASZD1GzIn/x/c/4eaW41hcBVg
u/photobuf is correct that there were two holy days. Fri 14 Nisan could be called the First of Matzah and Sat 15 Nisan was Sabbath. But Fri was preparation day for the Sabbath, and 14 Nisan had no "preparation day" other than preparing the lambs on 10 Nisan. There were no "two Sabbaths" that week in any text, and the spices argument doesn't work from the actual text.
The Passover was eaten 14 Nisan in any reading. What happened is that Jesus celebrated at the beginning, after sundown, and the Pharisees celebrated at the end, before sundown and into 15 Nisan.
15 Nisan was not a "High Sabbath" in itself as that wasn't used for something other than weekly Sabbath. It was high because that year it was both Sabbath and a miqra rest day (Lev. 23).
Jesus didn't say 72 hours, he used an idiom that meant parts of three days, and he also said "on the third day" many more times and ways and the Wed people don't take him literally about that.
I'd be happy to negotiate details with you. In particular, I agree that the church is mistaken about 1st-day "Sabbath" and "Palm Sunday" being Biblical terms. But these oversights were permitted for other reasons, they shouldn't cause us to throw out Firstfruits on the first day in Lev. 23:11.
The Jews had 2 calendars they used and I do know which one they were using when they were writing the NT but since the Bible states the Passover is always on the 14th day of the First Month of the Holy calendar, I would suppose for it to be a Wednesday crucifixion the were using the national calendar. Who knows?