This may be a flimsy theory but I was just thinking, what if "standing" is just a red herring?
Is it possible that due to the influence of a foreign power in this case, the issue isn't that the plaintiffs in the case lack standing, but that the courts themselves lack jurisdiction?
Q always said the military was the only way--is it possible that military courts are the only way too when election fraud involves foreign actors?
This is hopeful. I just assumed the judges are all in on it and corrupt and don't want the evidence heard in public.
Might still be true. Biden is a US citizen and the election was the American election.
There is a government with precedent authority in America. The Federal and Municipal corporations are just service organizations under contract.