The Fed loaned out a ton of money for WWI. This huge influx of cash caused the "Roaring 20s" as inflation lagged behind by a lot (not sure where those charts are atm, sorry, but they are a part of public record).
The "loans" from the Fed were paid off as can be seen on the charts here (input 1910(ish) to 1935(ish) for "custom" dates), which brought the money supply (M1) down, but the boom was causing spending and bank loans (M2 money) to go up.
When the stock market crashed, which was caused by a forced panic, which was caused by the lag time between the available information between the elite and the common folk, people lost a ton of money (and Rockefeller et al bought up all the rest of the United States they didn't already own), and there was no money left in M2 for loans because of what the Reserve Ratio was set at, and the purposeful massive reduction in M1 AKA paying off the National Debt.
Of note, that was the last time we ever paid down the National Debt. Other than the entire decade of the 20s, it only went down one other year (the year after WWII) and that one was only a tiny bit. We CAN'T pay off the debt, because it causes a depression. It can be no other way. It is impossible to pay off the National Debt and not cause massive economic destruction.
Regardless,
Because of the decrease in money supply (M1) and loans (M2) hitting cap based on the Reserve Ratio (10% I think) no more loan money was available.
So people were screwed. Wages and the price of goods sold had surged during the 20s, but because all the money was removed from the money supply there was no more money to pay anyone, or buy anything, or available for loans. There was no more money available for anything. It had been removed by paying off the debt.
So in 1933 FDR asked the Fed for more money, but the banks said, "We have no more gold." The rule was, they had to keep 40% reserves in gold. They had the gold before, so what happened to it? Either they were lying, or they got rid of all their gold. This caused FDR to enact EO 6102 which stole all the gold from all Americans and he gave it directly to The Fed so they could print more money. We have never gotten that gold back fyi. It still sits in the NY Fed.
So what happened to the gold they had when they first printed the money during WWI? I think it went to fund Hitler. I have read that elsewhere (not sure of source atm, I have it somewhere) but I have not yet tracked down primary source evidence for it. Regardless, either they were lying about not having it (when they had it before), or they really did give it away (which is almost certain). That was why they couldn't print any more money after people lost their shit in the stock market crash.
Interestingly, not long after, FDR signed the Gold Reserve Act which increased the value of gold by 75%, which means that The Fed (and those that owned The Fed) gained 75% in a day on all their gold stores relative to the U.S. dollar. In other words, their buying power increased by that much in a day.
FDR didn't have to take all the gold. They could have just lowered the Reserve Ratio, but they didn't. They did do that right after they got all the gold however.
No American's gained that 75% increase in buying power unfortunately, because all of their gold was stolen by the federal government under "eminent domain" laws (which are completely fraudulent).
I've left a ton of stuff out, and I haven't provided all the links (I'm sorry) but that's the short of it.
I thought Clinton supposedly killed the national debt in the 90s
He "balanced the budget" (which is to say, he didn't go MORE into debt) for one year (maybe two?). The debt remained. It was around $2T at the time. He also managed to completely destroy the economy to do it. The housing market crash of 2008 was fallout from his economic policies. It wasn't just Clinton though, it was Newt Gingrich as well.
The whole lot of them, all complicit.
There is no problem with asking questions. Most people on this board do not know a lot of the information I just posted. Even if they did, there would still be no problem asking questions. That is literally all everyone does all day long. That or answer them. :)
I also edited the post above, so I may have added more stuff after you read it, though I'm not sure any of it was overly important. It was minor editions.
That's fine. I did notice in your one post, that the president has the power to revoke BIS immunity, etc. when I looked at the link on the U.S. versions of the law.
Also, I wonder if that "immunity" would hold up in court anyway, honestly...
The President of the BIS has the power to allow agents of the BIS to be subject to a case brought in other countries, if he/they wish. It is not compulsory.
My post made clear that all of the countries agree that the BIS has the power. If a country did not agree, i.e. if they had not passed laws that they agreed with the power of the BIS, then it would not hold up in that country's courts because they did not agree that the BIS had those powers of immunity within their jurisdiction.
This whole thing is about jurisdiction. These laws act as treaties. They allow the BIS to do whatever it wants. They give the BIS effective jurisdiction, or perhaps a better way of saying it is, no American court has jurisdiction over them. Any case brought to court would be tossed out because no court has jurisdiction. Try bringing a case against state police to a federal court and see what happens. The federal government has no say over state police matters. Therefore their courts have no jurisdiction to hear the case. You would have to file with the appropriate jurisdiction before a legal body will even read your suit.
In the case of any suit filed against the BIS or any agent of the BIS, it wouldn't have to "stand up in court" because no case can ever be brought by our laws (included as links in the post), and no court can have jurisdiction to hear the case, unless the Rulers of the BIS allow it.
Let's see, the short of it is this:
Of note, that was the last time we ever paid down the National Debt. Other than the entire decade of the 20s, it only went down one other year (the year after WWII) and that one was only a tiny bit. We CAN'T pay off the debt, because it causes a depression. It can be no other way. It is impossible to pay off the National Debt and not cause massive economic destruction.
Regardless,
So people were screwed. Wages and the price of goods sold had surged during the 20s, but because all the money was removed from the money supply there was no more money to pay anyone, or buy anything, or available for loans. There was no more money available for anything. It had been removed by paying off the debt.
So in 1933 FDR asked the Fed for more money, but the banks said, "We have no more gold." The rule was, they had to keep 40% reserves in gold. They had the gold before, so what happened to it? Either they were lying, or they got rid of all their gold. This caused FDR to enact EO 6102 which stole all the gold from all Americans and he gave it directly to The Fed so they could print more money. We have never gotten that gold back fyi. It still sits in the NY Fed.
So what happened to the gold they had when they first printed the money during WWI? I think it went to fund Hitler. I have read that elsewhere (not sure of source atm, I have it somewhere) but I have not yet tracked down primary source evidence for it. Regardless, either they were lying about not having it (when they had it before), or they really did give it away (which is almost certain). That was why they couldn't print any more money after people lost their shit in the stock market crash.
Interestingly, not long after, FDR signed the Gold Reserve Act which increased the value of gold by 75%, which means that The Fed (and those that owned The Fed) gained 75% in a day on all their gold stores relative to the U.S. dollar. In other words, their buying power increased by that much in a day.
FDR didn't have to take all the gold. They could have just lowered the Reserve Ratio, but they didn't. They did do that right after they got all the gold however.
No American's gained that 75% increase in buying power unfortunately, because all of their gold was stolen by the federal government under "eminent domain" laws (which are completely fraudulent).
I've left a ton of stuff out, and I haven't provided all the links (I'm sorry) but that's the short of it.
I thought Clinton supposedly killed the national debt in the 90s, only for GWB to bring it back to find iraq.
By the way, thanks for the info, not trying to be a dick here, just trying to figure stuff out
He "balanced the budget" (which is to say, he didn't go MORE into debt) for one year (maybe two?). The debt remained. It was around $2T at the time. He also managed to completely destroy the economy to do it. The housing market crash of 2008 was fallout from his economic policies. It wasn't just Clinton though, it was Newt Gingrich as well.
The whole lot of them, all complicit.
There is no problem with asking questions. Most people on this board do not know a lot of the information I just posted. Even if they did, there would still be no problem asking questions. That is literally all everyone does all day long. That or answer them. :)
I also edited the post above, so I may have added more stuff after you read it, though I'm not sure any of it was overly important. It was minor editions.
That's fine. I did notice in your one post, that the president has the power to revoke BIS immunity, etc. when I looked at the link on the U.S. versions of the law.
Also, I wonder if that "immunity" would hold up in court anyway, honestly...
The President of the BIS has the power to allow agents of the BIS to be subject to a case brought in other countries, if he/they wish. It is not compulsory.
My post made clear that all of the countries agree that the BIS has the power. If a country did not agree, i.e. if they had not passed laws that they agreed with the power of the BIS, then it would not hold up in that country's courts because they did not agree that the BIS had those powers of immunity within their jurisdiction.
This whole thing is about jurisdiction. These laws act as treaties. They allow the BIS to do whatever it wants. They give the BIS effective jurisdiction, or perhaps a better way of saying it is, no American court has jurisdiction over them. Any case brought to court would be tossed out because no court has jurisdiction. Try bringing a case against state police to a federal court and see what happens. The federal government has no say over state police matters. Therefore their courts have no jurisdiction to hear the case. You would have to file with the appropriate jurisdiction before a legal body will even read your suit.
In the case of any suit filed against the BIS or any agent of the BIS, it wouldn't have to "stand up in court" because no case can ever be brought by our laws (included as links in the post), and no court can have jurisdiction to hear the case, unless the Rulers of the BIS allow it.