Worldwide there was a decidedly de-consolidating result that appeared to affect the largest colonial country left which was Great Britain. This appears to have forced the British Crown to pivot into the "Commonwealth" which was defacto continued stealth colonization and control via British currency and/or installation of Central Banks in all former colonies. This may have been done to conceal the direct ownership of so much land by the British Royal Family, specifically the Queen; Also, note the resulting destruction of the British Pound as the world reserve currency which was long-in-the-tooth, but does not seem to be an optimal outcome for a British Royal family and their banker buddies that were supposedly in FULL CONTROL.
Overall, the effects of WW II appeared to be a "taking away" of lots of formerly British-controlled assets if one assumes that strong man Stalin (control of Eastern Europe) was a quasi-nationalist and MI-6 had not fully penetrated and taken control of the Secret Police/KGB until after Stalin's death on March 5, 1953 (age 74) [which may have been an assassination by the same MI-6].
Note that Stalin was first celebrated by Time magazine and New York Times (1920s-30s) while they thought he was a globalist puppet. But once he got off the chain (unknown date) they reviled him as an evil Totalitarian dictator (see similar treatment of Hitler).
RELEVANCE TO Q OPERATION AND CURRENT WORLDWIDE EVENTS
I think this is relevant to NOW because it appears that the rest of the Commonwealth being dismantled is underway. Here is sauce from 2021 when Barbados left the Commonwealth and became and independent Republic: https://www.aljazeera.com/news/2021/11/29/barbados-set-to-become-a-republic-ditching-british-queen ;There are some breadcrumbs that Reagan and Thatcher were attempting to dismantle parts of the Commonwealth in the early 1980s, but their efforts got blocked/interrupted.
Pharaonic ruler colors of blue and gold in Commonwealth flags:
Barbados Flag is Interesting with some familiar colors: https://greatawakening.win/p/15IqskP27Y/barbados-a-likely-human-traffick/c/
Commonwealth Flag is Quite Interesting: https://greatawakening.win/p/16aT36JyAl/presenting-the-flag-of-the-briti/c/
Nauru Flag has same colors: https://greatawakening.win/p/15IXbNZut8/mr-pindar-sir-the-qtards-have-di/c/
Ukrainian Flag for comparison: https://patriots.win/p/16aANFwvZR/happy-presidents-day-to-the-pres/c/
Additional parallel to NOW is the pending WW III which appears to be getting used to dismantle the US "debt dollar" as the world reserve currency AND dismantle US control of numerous countries worldwide that have had governments "installed" by the US via CIA/State Department operations (Ukraine being the prime example). Note the creation of BRIC and the nationalist-oriented alliance that is developing there to counter the US "debt dollar". BRIC by BRIC post:https://greatawakening.win/p/15JAJemTbi/gold-will-destroy-the-federal-re/c/
Yes, agreed. The same people/group own/run all the central banks, so it's really just a matter of "appearances", be it the pound or dollar. They milk it dry regardless as they sap our labor and energy through inflation.
3/9/33 was FDR declaring full bankruptcy of the US to the international banksters and thus pledging all the labor, life and property of the "U.S. Citizen" to them.
Their backing of Hitler enabled them to greatly deplete the powerful "white Christian nations" that were gaining too much economic and military power for their liking.
In the grand scheme, I don't think in terms of "countries" any longer. There are two powerful factions in this world embedded in all national governments. Both understand how this reality words, and both work hard to ensure we don't understand, which leaves them holding all the power, as our lack of understanding causes us to give all our power away to them. One of these groups works to maintain a positive force, the other a negative force. Their mandate is to maintain a 50/50 balance as best they can. Such is the place we find ourselves in - the world of duality/opposites/polarity.
That's right, you're well researched. Just a minor correction, I believe they instituted the "Rules of Civil Procedure" by uniting common law and equity in 1938 however. This lead to the maritime/admiralty "juris-diction", which in reality I think is more likely "In rem" jurisdction and paved the way for the single judge, once merely a "referee", to begin making determinations in both "law" and "fact". And at that point, they could and did do whatever they pleased. This was the final blow that then allowed them to move forward with the war as you suggest. And BTW, it was Japan attacking Russia that was the REAL start of WWII. But of course, the history books had to be re-written to blame it all on Hitler and the Nazis. Good times, eh?
Love these kinds of threads on GAW. Awesome to see Anons who are are so well versed in real history and can extract information out of obfuscation!
For those wanting a source for the "Rules of Civil Procedure" here it is.
While looking for it, this sentence stood out to me:
Okay, looks like we gotta dig into these amendments.
This is new to me. Never realised it was an important happening, but it seems you are correct:
https://www.historynet.com/world-war-ii-soviet-and-japanese-forces-battle-at-khalkhin-gol/
Interesting timing, considering Hitler attacked Poland in Sep 1939. I dont think that timing is a coincidence. Its almost like he was waiting for Soviets to be freed from their conflict with Japan before attacking Poland.
Bingo! Good digs my friend. I love people who are curious about my comments rather than telling me I'm bonkers...hahaha.
One other quick note, "Civil Procedure" is "Roman Civil Law" or "Contract Law" or "Commercial Law".... the "Justinian Deception" perfected by the emperor himself. It is a system of "Commercial Warfare", aka "Commerce".
Thus, from 1933 to 1938 they undertook an UNLAWFUL CONVERSION of the "living man/woman and their PROPERTY", pledging it to the international bankster faction by way of the "strawman", the "artificial person" or "Legal person", which is a trust/corporation.
So "John Q Public", the natural person, was unlawfully converted to "JOHN Q PUBLIC", the artificial/legal person you see on all your legal documents, and became the PROPERTY of the CREATORS of the "LEGAL system" called "Rules of Civil Procedure". Maxim of Law -> "He who creates controls".
After we unwittingly "became", through ignorance, PROPERTY, they then took control of our primary property (homes/cars) as it is quite obvious that "Property cannot OWN property. This was when they instituted the split property title, the Mort-gage (death-pledge) as well as the automobile "Regis-stration" (give to the king). By "registering" your property with the state, you split the actual property ownership into two parts; the "Legal Title" which has full control of the property in question (house/car), and the "equitable title", which grants "use and enjoyment" privileges to its holder.
Understanding all of the above that the Constitution was based on English "Common Law", stemming from the Magna Carta of course as we were "sovereigns" equal to the lords, barons, earls, dukes (i.e. those who were sovereign in England holding their "title of nobility). This is what was usurped completely and finally in 1938.
There's more to the story of course that's a high-level overview. Check out the statement attributed, but can't be definitively proven, to Edward Mandell House, the Rothschild agent who Wilson called his "alter ego". https://www.1215.org/lawnotes/lawnotes/house.htm
This is exactly what happened, regardless of who really said it or not...
Do you happen to have any sauce or references for figuring out when state corporations were actually overlaid on top of the sovereign states? It appears to be all in 1933, but STATE CORPS are hiding their Articles of Incorporation that show they are domiciled in DC. Clearly the STATE BAR CORPS were the entity that created these STATE CORPS. For example STATE BAR OF CA CORP created in 1927, and then STATE OF CA CORP created in 1933 sometime after March 9, 1933.
One way I have been attacking this issue is to identify the date when the STATE BAR CORP was integrated into the Judicial Branch, and then attacking everything as being unconstitutional from that point forward per violation of Article IV, Section 4 (corporate gov't instead of Republican form of gov't). In the case of CA this means that from Nov 8, 1966 integration date of public corporation STATE BAR OF CA CORP (1927), ALL legislation, rules, actions, judicial decisions, amendments, etc are unconstitutional, ab initio (from the beginning). This implodes the 1974 13th Amendment that put into place the Income Tax in CA.
This vector of attack appears to have great potential for all "integrated bar states" to implode the state income tax (as unconstitutional per Article IV, Section 4 violation by inclusion of a public corporation into the judiciary branch of the State Constitution). I believe this would include CA, IL, NY, MA, CT, VA among others.
I don't have any references in particular, but I do know the state government and federal buildings were all handed to the international banksters after not being able to pay back the original $6million Franc loan to the French after the Revolutionary War. The Crown Corporation bought this debt from the French and it accrued to over $80Million USD in 1859. The original 13 states attempted to spread this debt around to the southern states and this is why they seceded.
From 1860-1880 we had the Civil War, the creation of the fictional legal entity "Corporation" (talking corpse), the 1871 Organic Act created "The United States of America Inc.", which was dissolved quickly but reincorporated a couple different times in the mid-1870s. All the while, the southern states were held under martial law and their senators/congressmen were simply proxy agents for the conquering victors.
During this time, the state capitals and buildings, along with the federal buildings were all pledged to the international banksters as collateral for the unpaid loan. Exactly when each State of State (e.g. "State of New York", "State of Iowa") corporation's paperwork was filed I do not know, but this was just a legal formality. The bankruptcy pledge was already in effect.
But I encourage you to keep doing your research along these lines to help better spread this information!
Your analysis about how we entered the maritime law and how sovereign humans became strawmen person, and hence bringing them under the jurisdiction of the maritime law.
I like to remind people that there are broadly 3 areas of law.
Common Law (Law of the Land) - applies to sovereign human beings and given to us from Bible. As long as you dont grievously hurt, rape or kill someone, you are not going to have anything to answer under Common Law.
Maritime Law (Law of water) - applies to contracts between fictitious entities. Currently, as long as we go accept our "all caps fictional personhood", we will be subject to this law.
Trust Law (Law of air) - is the most superior of all laws. When you are acting as a fiduciary for someone else or for a Trust, this law applies.
I think the slippery slop from sovereign humans to fictitious all caps personhood happened for a while, definitely from the time of the Civil war. By the time Fed, IRS and Birth certificate systems were implemented, we were technically already in this phase, but it would only work if all the judges, lawyers, politicians etc completely bought into this and believed this.
I believe those final stages of converting all institutions, officially, to treat us as fictional entities and make us subject to maritime law was fully accomplished in 1938. Of course the world war that broke out conveniently after that was the perfect way to ensure no one had a chance to realise this.
Yes, you've got it right. L.A.W (Land->Air-Water).
The amazing trick they're pulling off now is their "In Rem" jurisdiction however. This is like next level legal trickery. The judge can put on the appropriate hat of any of the 3 at any given time during a proceeding, always in an effort to benefit he and his benefactors the most.
So basically, you never know what's going on from word to word, moment to moment in a court proceeding. The judge can agree and say "sure, you're a "natural person" living man I'm looking at and talking to" in one moment, and then in the next ask you to agree you're the person named John Q Public on your driver's license? And you of course say, "well yes, that's me". But in that moment, although he agreed the he was looking at and talking to the natural person you think you are, which would make this a common law proceeding, in the next breath, via verbal words alone, he got you to admit you're the artificial person "JOHN Q PUBLIC" on your driver's license, and then BAM, your case has now been converted to Special Admiralty/Maritime in that split second, you none the wiser for it.
This is "In Rem" jurisdiction, meaning by the choice of the judge.
Juris-Diction -> Oath/Law-Spoken. Do you see that it's words? In the olden days of European feudal lords, the serf/peasant declared his oath, with words alone, to his feudal lord...as there weren't pens and paper readily handy all the time in those days. You swore your oath in front of witnesses by saying you agreed to follow the rules/laws of Lord Such-And-Such in return for his protection and benefits. This was your "Juris-Diction". You "spoke" that you swore your oath to follow your leige lord's rules.
And this is what's happening today. This is why the judge always first gets you to agree to the name (strawman) at the beginning of the court proceeding and why the police officer always needs your driver's license (strawman) and registration (property handed over to the king) before he can proceed with ticketing you.
You're literally "Swearing an oath" to the feudal lords that run the show today.
Quite a deception, eh? You gotta hand it to 'em though, it's bloody ingenious!
fyi...it appears that the FRCP were UNCONSTITUTIONALLY modified by the House and their lobbyists/plants. All court rules are supposed to be created/modified/amended by the Supreme Court (Article III), and it appears that Article I (Congress) has usurped judicial authority using unconstitutional bill "Judicial Procedure Reform Act of 1937" https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Judicial_Procedures_Reform_Bill_of_1937
In fact, it appears that almost all legislation passed 1933-1938 is actually unconstitutional.
Kinda makes sense why they needed a WW2 right after that. To make sure no one had the time or energy to notice and start questioning this.
Would be awesome to have a powwow to trade theories and ideas back and forth as to how badly our system of laws has been destroyed.
Agreed. Would be glad to participate.
Step one. Statutes, codes, acts, decrees, mandates, ordinances, executive orders, etc. are NOT LAWS, these are all CORPORATE POLICIES. The question is, what corporation are you unwittingly agreeing that you work for?
Laws are immutable and self-evident.
We are tricked by semantics and language. In our lack of precision, we are captured and suffer accordingly.
Good details. Thank you. The actual date of bankruptcy #2 of the US appears to be on September 11, 1931 believe it or not. International Bankers set that date as the 70 years for debt repayment from a date in 1861 (bankruptcy #1). They apparently provide some time to "work out" the reorganization and this explains the time lag between the 1861 bankruptcy, resulting Civil War, and the Organic Act of 1871 which was the official re-collateralization plan that pledged all Federal Lands and Property as collateral for National Debt. 1861 is +70 years from the initiation of the debt refinance of the colonies in 1791, so key banker dates are 1791, 1861, 1931, 2001, and 2021.
There appears to be the 2 year lag between bankruptcy and re-collateralization in 1933 because they had to pass an Amendment in 1931 that allowed the installation of the new corporate/Nazi gov't which then would be inaugurated on Jan 20 instead of March 4. Once could argue that the re-collateralization plan was not fully complete until the 1938 FRCP as you noted. The point is that it all had to be COMPLETE prior to WW II for some reason.
A country is granted 3 periods of 70 years to payback national debt, and then there is either a jubilee or a 20 year extension to resolve, cancel, or re-organize another 210 year period.
US bankruptcy #3 was on September 11, 2001, and it appears that the re-collateralization occurred sometime in the 2009-2013 period where most of the US was pledged to or actually sold off to China and other countries, illegally. Still trying to figure out exactly what happened. For example, it appears that China has actually annexed California from what I can tell. Not sure how they can do this.
Excellent work.
I would only say, the "official official" start date was the signing of the Constitution, by the Constitutors (civil law. He who promised by a simple pact to pay the debt of another;) as it was a contract written to pay back the debt. So 1789 -> 70 years = 1859 (right before the Civil War coup) and then 1929 (stock market crash and start of forced depression) and then 1999 (all assets transferred to the IMF).
That the documentation and paperwork follow by a couple years is merely a formality I believe. The debt restructuring negotiations takes years to work out by the looks of when it's all formalized in writing.
This is interesting. Yes, I was going by official dates that appear to have been used by International Bankers, but you are likely correct that the actual "practical bankruptcies" occurred shortly before. For the 1791 date I was also keying off the First Bank charter which was 1791-1811, and its non-renewal was likely one of the main reasons for War of 1812, imo.
It's akin to an individual or business declaring bankruptcy on such-and-such date. That just starts the clock basically. It can sometimes take many months, even years for all the asset distribution and forfeiture to be determined by the courts. But AS OF that date, the income/expenditures/revenues/ledger etc. of that person/business/government declaring bankruptcy are heavily scrutinized and must be accounted for. To wit, I declare bankruptcy today and then tomorrow I go on a one month vacation to Hawaii with my family, live extravagantly, no expense spared, etc. and blow a big pile of cash that would have otherwise been distributed to my creditors. The courts are going to make me reimburse the creditors for this adventure...