https://x.com/ArynneWexler/status/1790859868426867050
These pro-Hamas demonstrations are not only linked to the usual suspects like George Soros, but they have ties to the Chinese Communist Party AND MILLIONS of $$$ have been funneled through the Goldman Sachs Philanthropy Fund to leftist NGOs supporting these Hamas encampments...
Jews do not believe in Christ.
They HATE Christ.
The so-called Jews, yes. Same as the Pharisees, whose traditions they still follow.
This is a conversation that Jesus had with some such "Jews." They were not truly the children of Abraham, nor of God, but rather of the one whose character they had, which is Satan.
The English translations of the Bible have been CORRUPTED in many areas.
When you go back to the original Hebrew and Greek scripture, you find some differences in what we think we understand about the Bible today.
Today's jews are an ethnicity, whether or not they follow Judaism.
As an ethnicity, it means they have common genetic ancestors, and this is genetic, not spiritual.
Todays jews are the genetic desendents of the Edomites of the Bible, who themselves were a mixed race with the Canaanites and the Kenites.
None of them were Hebrews, and none of them were Israelites.
By the time of Jesus, the Kingdom of Judah (Israelites of the tribes of Judah and Benjamin) no longer existed. It had been taken over by the Romans during the rise of the Roman Empire, during the time of the Babylonian capitvity.
This land area had become the Roman province of Judea.
In John 8, Jesus was speaking to the Edomites who had political control of Judea, subject to Roman authority.
The Edomites were part of Abraham's family tree, and they were part of Isaac's familty tree, BUT they were NOT part of Jacob's family tree. They were a part of Esau's tree, and his name was changed to Edom. His desendents were the Edomites, when he mixed with the Canaanites, who had previously mixed with the Kenites.
The Pharisees were mostly these Edomite jews, but it was a mixture of people. Judea at that time was a "diverse culture" like we see today. Some of them were true Israelites, but most were not.
They followed the Tradition of the Elders, which was the forerunner to the Talmud, because that is what the Edomite jews were pushing, and they had control of the area.
Jesus said that He knew they were "seed" of Abraham (part of his genetic family tree), but Abraham was NOT their father. They had a different father.
They protested, "But we be not born of FORNICATION."
Why did they make this claim?
Because "fornication" means RACE MIXING. It does NOT mean pre-marital sex, which is what modern churches falsely promote.
Jesus then immediately told them that their father was Satan (the "Adversary").
The only way you can reconcile what might seem to be contradictory in certain parts of the Bible is to understand that our modern English versions have been CHANGED in some aspects, and that changes what we think the story means.
But when you realize these jews were claiming to be JUDAHITES, and therefore Israelites, and they were NOT, then what Jesus said makes sense.
They were not "fake jews." They were real jews, claiming to be something they were not: Israelites.
Very good post. Just a few points I'd like to make:
I've never heard that before. Very interesting if true.
The Greek word translated as "fornication" in John 8:41 is porneia, which can refer to both illicit sexual intercourse, including marital unfaithfulness, and idolatry in a figurative sense (being unfaithful to God). As such, I don't think they were talking about "race-mixing" here.
The term "Jew" is derived from Judahite, thus if they were not really Judahites or Israelites they were in fact "fake Jews."
One-minute video on this about what the jews themselves claim:
https://www.bitchute.com/video/TpYSHTRyMlbJ/
Agreed.
In our modern English versions, we see that the original words are translated differently. Not all the versions use the same English words. So, which is correct?
John 8:41, King James Version --
John 8:41, Young's Literal Translation --
The Expanded Bible is useful because it often gives more than one version of the various English translations.
John 8:41, Expanded Bible --
This tells me that various translators over the centuries had different understandings of how "porneia" should be translated into English in John 8:41.
I notice that all of these definitions that you state are very VAGUE.
"illicit." What does that mean EXACTLY?
"Marital unfaithfulness." What does that mean EXACTLY?
"Idolatry." What does that mean EXACTLY?
Regarding illicit, that is a general, vague term, that has no specific meaning.
Regarding marital unfaithfulness, I assume you mean adultery.
Whatever the words mean, they would have to be consistent between the OT and the NT. They cannot be different because the story and The Law did not change. The NT merely added more information.
Matthew 13:35, KJV --
Same verse, but Expanded Bible --
In the OT, the English "adultery" was translated from the Hebrew "naaph." Naaph means "Woman who breaks wedlock."
Notice, it is not "man" or "person" who breaks wedlock, but "woman."
In John 8:37, Jesus agrees with these Edomite jews that they were the SEED of Abraham. So, he was in their genetic family tree (just not decended from Jacob).
Jesus then said that although He knew they were of the seed of Abraham, nevertheless, Abraham was NOT their FATHER.
Are you saying that their response to Jesus was about who their MOTHER was -- that their mother had sex with someone who was not Abraham, or something similar in their family tree?
That would mean that they were NOT the seed of Abraham, but Jesus already acknowledged that they were. So, that can't be it.
There is no mention of anything about their mother, so we cannot conclude that adultery is what was referenced here.
The translation from "porneia" to "adultery" is wrong, and your claim that "fornication" means "adultery" in this passage cannot be correct.
The concept of "idolatry" gets closer to the truth.
When we think of the word "father" we can think of (a) genetic father, grandfather, great grandfather, etc., or (b) go ALL the way back to "the Father," as in the very beginning.
God was the Father of the Israelites, while Abraham was the first in the genetic line who received a special covenant from God.
The Edomite jews in John 8:41 are claming to be of Abraham because they knew that Abraham was in the direct genetic line going all the way back to God/Adam.
But in John 8:44, Jesus tells them:
He told them, yes their seed is through Abraham's family tree, BUT their Father is Satan.
He was a murderer FROM THE BEGINNING.
Who was the first murderer all the way back to the beginning?
Cain.
Cain was the seed of Satan, the serpent in the Garden of Eden.
Eve did not eat an apple. That is the washed and cleansed (and falsified) version we are told today.
Eve was seduced by the Serpent/Satan and their offspring was Cain, the murderer from the beginning.
Cain was expelled from the Garden of Eden and went off to find a woman to marry and other people to build a city.
Where did those people come from?
They could not have been from Adam. They had to be adults who were already living at that time.
Adam had a genetic family tree, one branch of which can be traced down to Abraham, via Seth. His grandson, Jacob, was the original patriarch of the Israelite branch of this family tree.
The Edomites were of Esau, who race mixed with Canaanites (of the cursed Caanan, grandson of Noah, who was also a direct descendent of Adam). Both Noah and Abraham were loved by God. But both Canaan and Esau/Edom were hated.
Their family trees had mixed with the Kenites, who were the descendents of Cain, who was the seed of Satan, represented by the Serpent in the Garden of Eden, and all those other people were created by the Fallen Angels, that we do not learn about until Revelation 12:7-12.
There is MISSING INFORMATION in the OT, and some FALSE TRANSLATIONS throughout.
But read the OT/NT in context with each other, and go back to the original meanings in the scripture, and the story starts to come together and make sense.
What does God tell the Israelite people to do? One thing was to remain "holy." Holy means to be SEPARATE from the others.
Jude 1:7, KJV --
Jude 1:7, EXB --
What is this "strange flesh" or "different flesh" that are described as "fornication" that is something that "God does not allow?"
In Genesis 1, a phrase is repeated, "kind after kind." That applied to animals and plants, and it would also apply to those who God created, and not who the Fallen Angels created by their corruption.
The concept of race mixing being a sexual sin has been removed from the Bible via (a) false translations and (b) modern changes in definitions to words.
Examples: "Gay" meant happy, but modern definitions include homosexuality (a specified sin in the Bible); and "Adultery" meant woman who breaks wedlock, but modern definitions include male or female who "cheats."
But these modern definitions are irrelevant because the Bible does not change with the times. The original scriptures in their original languages tells us just how much the modern pastors are lying about what the Bible really says, and what the story is really about.
Deuteronomy 23:2, KJV --
But what does "bastard" mean here?
Same verse, but EXB --
What is a "forbidden marriage?"
Something forbidden by God, right?
It might include incest, certainly, but it also included those who did not keep to the "holy" dictate of "kind after kind."
Their offspring would be "bastards," because their parents were of different races, not "kind after kind," and therefore not according to God's Law.
It is the bastard who cannot enter the assembly of God. Why, if not because he is the result of breaking God's law?
What law, if not race mixing?
Adultery? How would you know?
Idolatry? How would you know?
Unmarried sex? How would you know?
Race mixing? You KNOW because you can SEE it with your own two eyes.
And you can STILL see the result 10 generations later.
Like it or not, it is the only explanation that makes sense.
In John 8:41, Jesus was saying that, while these Edomite jews did have Abraham in their ancestry, and therefore God, they ALSO had Satan in their ancestry, which makes them MIXED, and due to their satanic blood, they would do what their Father, Satan, would have them do.
I know it is hard to get an understanding of this perspective, but we have been lied to about everything else, why not the Bible, where most people turn to for morality and perspective, as well?
This perspective also explains why jews were kicked out of 100+ countries over 1,000+ times (mostly White European) over many centuries, and why it is jews (not all, but most who are involved are jews) who are behind the destruction we see in Western White Christian society tody -- foreign invasion of non-Whites, destruction of our wealth via central banking, promotion of degeneracy, control of the media, control of aspects of government, among many others.
You are close, but not quite there.
They CLAIM to be Hebrews/Israelites/Judahites.
But they are not.
Their false claim does not make them "fake jews."
It makes them "fake Judahites," "fake Israelites," and "fake Hebrews," who are real jews and are real LYING jews -- some of them don't know that they are promoting a lie; others do.
"Jew" was not in the Greek or Latin languages. It was a made-up English word when the Bible was being translated into English, and used to describe those fake Judahites that Jesus was dealing with in the Roman province of Judea.
They WERE Judeans, for sure, just like illegal alien Mexicans and Venezuelans who are currently living in Texas could be called "Texans," but they are not the REAL Texans. They are invaders.
Same concept, more or less.