My point is that literal, blood-lineage Hebrews do indeed have a special part to play in things. They have never owned the whole land from the Nile to the Euphrates.
No, Abram was put into a deep sleep when the covenant was made to signify that the covenant is fully on God. There is no requirement for Abram or his descendants to do anything.
12And when the sun was going down, a deep sleep fell upon Abram; and, lo, an horror of great darkness fell upon him. 13And he said unto Abram, Know of a surety that thy seed shall be a stranger in a land that is not theirs, and shall serve them; and they shall afflict them four hundred years; 14And also that nation, whom they shall serve, will I judge: and afterward shall they come out with great substance. 15And thou shalt go to thy fathers in peace; thou shalt be buried in a good old age. 16But in the fourth generation they shall come hither again: for the iniquity of the Amorites is not yet full.
17And it came to pass, that, when the sun went down, and it was dark, behold a smoking furnace, and a burning lamp that passed between those pieces.
18In the same day the LORD made a covenant with Abram, saying, Unto thy seed have I given this land, from the river of Egypt unto the great river, the river Euphrates
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Thank you for the prompt. I don't know where I got the idea that they had to obey God or fulfill some requirements to fully possess the promised land.
Even still since Christ fulfilled the Law and the Prophets it would be counted as such, yes? Then by extension all who believe in Christ are included somehow? Can you help me hone in on what's happening here, my head is starting to spin 😅
Fren, this is a different, separate covenant from the covenant of the law (Covenant of Moses). The Mosaic Covenant is conditional, but the Abrahamic Covenant is unconditional.
They never owned the whole land? What about Joshua 23:43-45? "So the Lord gave to Israel all the land of which He had sworn to give to their fathers, and they took possession of it and dwelt in it. 44 The Lord gave them rest all around, according to all that He had sworn to their fathers. And not a man of all their enemies stood against them; the Lord delivered all their enemies into their hand. 45 Not a word failed of any good thing which the Lord had spoken to the house of Israel. All came to pass."
My point is that literal, blood-lineage Hebrews do indeed have a special part to play in things. They have never owned the whole land from the Nile to the Euphrates.
Ah, gotcha. That is interesting.
Isn't there a verse somewhere which lays out the requirement they must meet in order to fully possess the promised land?
No, Abram was put into a deep sleep when the covenant was made to signify that the covenant is fully on God. There is no requirement for Abram or his descendants to do anything.
Gen. 15:12-21
12And when the sun was going down, a deep sleep fell upon Abram; and, lo, an horror of great darkness fell upon him. 13And he said unto Abram, Know of a surety that thy seed shall be a stranger in a land that is not theirs, and shall serve them; and they shall afflict them four hundred years; 14And also that nation, whom they shall serve, will I judge: and afterward shall they come out with great substance. 15And thou shalt go to thy fathers in peace; thou shalt be buried in a good old age. 16But in the fourth generation they shall come hither again: for the iniquity of the Amorites is not yet full.
17And it came to pass, that, when the sun went down, and it was dark, behold a smoking furnace, and a burning lamp that passed between those pieces.
18In the same day the LORD made a covenant with Abram, saying, Unto thy seed have I given this land, from the river of Egypt unto the great river, the river Euphrates
...
Thank you for the prompt. I don't know where I got the idea that they had to obey God or fulfill some requirements to fully possess the promised land.
Even still since Christ fulfilled the Law and the Prophets it would be counted as such, yes? Then by extension all who believe in Christ are included somehow? Can you help me hone in on what's happening here, my head is starting to spin 😅
Fren, this is a different, separate covenant from the covenant of the law (Covenant of Moses). The Mosaic Covenant is conditional, but the Abrahamic Covenant is unconditional.
They never owned the whole land? What about Joshua 23:43-45? "So the Lord gave to Israel all the land of which He had sworn to give to their fathers, and they took possession of it and dwelt in it. 44 The Lord gave them rest all around, according to all that He had sworn to their fathers. And not a man of all their enemies stood against them; the Lord delivered all their enemies into their hand. 45 Not a word failed of any good thing which the Lord had spoken to the house of Israel. All came to pass."
Did Joshua 21:43-45 Fulfill the Abrahamic Land Covenant?