"Mild due tot he vaccine" is what they will claim, but when the cytokine storm occurs and they are in serious problem, they will blame us for it. They want to have it both ways!
I like to go right back to basics with the following question...
if the virus has been isolated why the need for RNA shots? Wouldn't we have simply created a typical vaccine using the isolate?
Like a bibliography of cabal-funded medical studies showing how they have been systematically poisoning us for decades? Yeah, that would be a negative.
Most of this information can be separately dug on, but data/studies to support it will be internet fact checked, filtered, blocked, or memory holed. Some or all may be true, but I can’t give you an estimate of said truth. All I know is the official narrative we are fed from big pharma and our corrupt government is a lie.
Not exactly sure. This was taken from voat before it was shut down. The tpp is obviously “the parasite pill” but I’m unsure about the other symbols. Possibly the infinity symbol is borrowed from 8ch, aka infinity chan.
I would have to do much more digging into the other symbols to figure it out since I am totally unfamiliar with them.
To bad. They are guilty because they knowingly used a test, not designed to test for, a not isolated Covid-19 using the common cold virus as a base, with the cycling set to high (40, instead of 26), resulting in diagnosis, treatment, isolation of individuals being falsely diagnosed. Asa result many committed suicide from isolation, became sick from mask wearing/receiving the a Covid shot, which resulted in death and/or permanent injury. So maybe you can’t sue Big Pharma, but maybe you can sue the individual scientist, doctors, hospitals who knowingly pushed this shot and ignored the deaths and injuries. Claiming lack of knowledge is not an acceptable excuse.
NAC destroys GO. Anyone who took the jab or is being tested on a regular basis need to be taking this along with quercetin which is an analog of HCQ that will prevent spike protein binding to cells. The more you do to mitigate the jab the better off you will be,
What happened to think (and research) for yourself???
Good idea. Let's do that together.
Here's the problem with the paper you cited (and I have seen this from more than one paper, which is why I wanted to know which one your were looking at):
Your paper says, "SARS-CoV-2 was isolated from a 58-year-old man from Wuhan, China"
And, " A nasopharyngeal swab and sputum collected when the patient presented to hospital were each positive for SARS-CoV-2"
Do you see the problem here? How could they KNOW that the sample from the patient was SARS-CoV-2 ... IF ... THEY STILL HAD NOT YET IDENTIFIED WHAT SPECIFICALLY SARS-CoV-2 WAS???
Cart before the horse problem.
The word "isolated" is taken OUT OF CONTEXT here. It means ONLY that it was a sample taken from the person, and NOT that it was necessarily isolated from anything else (so that it could be used to identify the genome sequence).
Sure, there are millions of people who have had samples taken from them and therefore "isolated" in that context. But that is NOT what some of us here are talking about when we talk about "isolate (and purify)" for the purpose of analyzing it -- whether to identify the genome sequence or to find out if it is actually a pathogen at all.
This whole thing is a pile of lies on top of lies on top of lies, so we have to be able to parse it all out, unwind the lies, and figure out what the truth is.
The word "isolated" has more than one meaning.
The paper says:
They used "reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction" (iow: PCR)
See the problem here?
We already know that PCR does NOT diagnose. It ONLY replicates what you have. Does not tell you IF WHAT YOU HAVE CAUSED THE SYMPTOMS that the patient was reporting.
It also says:
"Whole genome sequencing of the viral isolate and phylogenetic analysis indicated the isolate exhibited greater than 99.99% sequence identity with other publicly available SARS-CoV-2 genomes."
Another problem. BIG problem. Do you see it?
Obviously, this could not be the FIRST attempt to identify SARS-CoV-2, since they ALREADY had SOMETHING ELSE to compare it with.
Those of us who say the virus has not been isolated AND PURIFIED, are specifically referencing the Koch's Postulates framework to isolate AND purify a substance, AND also inject it into a subject (even if a rat or monkey) to find out IF IT CAUSES HARM.
THAT is the ONLY way to KNOW if this thing is at all harmful.
A substance must also be isolated and purified so that it can be analyzed ... SO THAT THE GENOME SEQUENCE CAN BE IDENTIFIED.
It does not appear that ANYBODY has ever done that. They seem to be just using a computer model.
See the problem?
In this case, they simply extracted a sample, used PCR, and then compared it to an already known SARS-CoV-2 genome sequence that they CLAIM proves this man had Covid.
The only thing this paper does is explain the first DIAGNOSIS in Australia.
It does NOT show how the SARS-CoV-2 genome was identified with an isolated AND purified sample.
The genetic sequence they are using could be FROM THE HUMAN BODY ITSELF, or from ANY NUMBER OF OTHER viruses or pathogens.
The ONLY way to know if THIS PARTICULAR thing is harmful to humans is to (a) isolate AND purify, then (b) inject into a test subject to (c) find out if it makes the subject sick with the SAME symptoms in the original subject(s) (there should be more than just one patient with symptoms -- there should be several with the SAME symptoms, and their samples should have the SAME material, and THAT is what should be analyzed).
This paper is just like others I have seen -- it does NOT describe how they came up with the SARS-CoV-2 genome sequence. It describes how they COMPARED a sample to an ALREADY EXISTING sequence (likely, from a computer and not from a physical sample in a lab).
"Isolate" in the context that some of us are using does NOT mean merely taking a sample from someone. It is much more than that. Taking this word out of context has been done with several papers, like the one you cited.
Bottom Line
It is my suspicion that the reason the CDC (and Australia's, UK's, Ireland's, and Canada's versions of the CDC) have ALL stated there is NO sample of SARS-CoV-2 that any lab can obtain is because none exists.
The reason none exists is because it was NEVER isolated and purified, and THEN studied, extracting the genome sequence from the sample.
Instead, the genome sequence was likely created by a computer model, and probably comes directly from a portion of the human genome itself or something that already exists in most humans, such as a coronavirus (common cold).
That is why anybody could be theoretically "diagnosed" as positive using PCR, which is not a diagnostic tool. It simply comes down to (a) extracting a sample from someone, (b) giving it to a lab, (c) identifying a genome sequence that is based on a computer model that is not actually SARS-CoV-2, (d) running that sequence material through an arbitrary number of PCR cycles (the number of which constantly changes, depending on what the desired outcome is, based on the changing narrative), and (e) giving a false "positive" or false "negative" result back to the doctor/clinic, who has no idea what actually happened.
The paper you cited merely explains how the FIRST case in Australia was "diagnosed." It has nothing to do with the ORIGINAL sequencing of the genome.
P.S. Don't be so snotty in your reply next time. We can have these discussions with respect, if we want to.
"Each vial contains approximately 0.5 mL of cell lysate and supernatant from Cercopithecus aethiops kidney cells infected with SARS-CoV-2, isolate USA-WA1/2020."
That is not an isolated/purified sample of SARS-CoV-2.
Do you not see "kidney cells?"
It only took you one minute to find it because you did not bother to read what it says.
You show me kidney cells infected with SARS-CoV-2, and you think that is clear evidence of a sample of SARS-CoV-2 isolated and purified?
It is not. If you think it is, then there is no point to further discussion of this.
BTW, I at least gave you the respect of reading through the things you cited. You did not show me the same respect. Can't have a "debate" that is one-sided.
You are asking to infect a human with an isolated sample, iow, to commit war crimes.
Strawman argument.
Where is the research to show that "substance X" makes people/animals have "Y symptoms."
I have never seen that study.
Your strawman is also the reason Pfizer gave its experimental drug to the "control" (placebo) group as well as the test group. Both groups got the drug, which renders the trial meaningless.
I wonder if the new test will depend on a centralized system where the CDC has total control of the results, instead of the current patchwork of testing locations where CDC has no ability to edit.
Has anyone considered that we are really dealing with a bio-chemical attack instead of a virus? We know the COVID-19 virus has not been isolated and purified So how did the vaxxine ever get developed for COVID-19? David Martin, Ph.D. has incontrovertible evidence the mRNA vaxxine was developed before COVID-19 was "leaked from a Wuhan lab".
Strange, no?
Now let's look at the vaxxine itself. We have learned that it is loaded with graphine oxide (GO), which is a known carcinogen. GO toxicity has the same symptoms as COVID-19 has. People lose their taste and smell and it attacks the respiratory system, heart, and other organs.
So, how are people getting sick? How is it that people in unaffected rural areas come down with this and getting sick? I don't know. However, my gut tells me that GO was released in the environment somehow. Was there aerial spraying of Graphene Oxide? Is it in the drinking water? Fertilizers, herbicides, Food packaging?
I am not believing the virus story. I don't believe there is a virus. I believe this is bio-chemical warfare against the American people.
The false positives all have the same effect: push the vaccines.
"Mild due to the vaccine."
"Mild due tot he vaccine" is what they will claim, but when the cytokine storm occurs and they are in serious problem, they will blame us for it. They want to have it both ways!
But yet, he received Regeneron as a treatment. So......the obfuscation continues.
Until someone show me an isolated/purified "Virus" The "Virus" dont exist.
YES!!
AND ITS NOT EVEN AN ACADEMIC PAPER.
SERIOUSLY EVEN OUR SHILLS ARE MORONS.
IM SURROUNDED BY MORONS,SATANIST, MORE MORONS AND MARXIST SHILLS
WELCOME TO MY LIFE 2021
MORON HAVE YOU READ THE STUDY IM SO FUCKING TIRED OF SHILS AND MORONS LINKING ME FRAUDULENT STUDIES.
MANY FUCKING PAPERS HAS CLAIMED FOR 19MONTHS THEY ISOLATED THE VIRUS BUT IF YOU ACTUALLY CHECK ITS NOT PURIFIED
SO PISS OFF YOU USELESS FUCK SHILL
and they cannot replicate the so-called viruses, grow them.....it's all BS
Yeps
I like to go right back to basics with the following question... if the virus has been isolated why the need for RNA shots? Wouldn't we have simply created a typical vaccine using the isolate?
Yes, a weakened or dead version like other vaccines. That’s what should have been done.
But here is the deal. We don’t even know what is truth anymore. Do “viruses” even exist in the form they claim? Makes you wonder what’s real anymore.
https://files.catbox.moe/9rbtxh.pdf
Is there sauce for this document?
Like a bibliography of cabal-funded medical studies showing how they have been systematically poisoning us for decades? Yeah, that would be a negative.
Most of this information can be separately dug on, but data/studies to support it will be internet fact checked, filtered, blocked, or memory holed. Some or all may be true, but I can’t give you an estimate of said truth. All I know is the official narrative we are fed from big pharma and our corrupt government is a lie.
Not exactly sure. This was taken from voat before it was shut down. The tpp is obviously “the parasite pill” but I’m unsure about the other symbols. Possibly the infinity symbol is borrowed from 8ch, aka infinity chan.
I would have to do much more digging into the other symbols to figure it out since I am totally unfamiliar with them.
Thanks. It's absolutely true.
I did hear there was one coming.
Novavax.
I still don’t see a reason to get it, but to each their own.
Both the CDC and the FDA need to be abolished.
To bad. They are guilty because they knowingly used a test, not designed to test for, a not isolated Covid-19 using the common cold virus as a base, with the cycling set to high (40, instead of 26), resulting in diagnosis, treatment, isolation of individuals being falsely diagnosed. Asa result many committed suicide from isolation, became sick from mask wearing/receiving the a Covid shot, which resulted in death and/or permanent injury. So maybe you can’t sue Big Pharma, but maybe you can sue the individual scientist, doctors, hospitals who knowingly pushed this shot and ignored the deaths and injuries. Claiming lack of knowledge is not an acceptable excuse.
cool, so why MRNA tactic and not a typical vaccine using inert virus sample? Surely that would be quicker and safer and require less testing?
NAC destroys GO. Anyone who took the jab or is being tested on a regular basis need to be taking this along with quercetin which is an analog of HCQ that will prevent spike protein binding to cells. The more you do to mitigate the jab the better off you will be,
None of that is true. Viruses are fairy farts.
LOL!
Sauce?
Good idea. Let's do that together.
Here's the problem with the paper you cited (and I have seen this from more than one paper, which is why I wanted to know which one your were looking at):
Do you see the problem here? How could they KNOW that the sample from the patient was SARS-CoV-2 ... IF ... THEY STILL HAD NOT YET IDENTIFIED WHAT SPECIFICALLY SARS-CoV-2 WAS???
Cart before the horse problem.
The word "isolated" is taken OUT OF CONTEXT here. It means ONLY that it was a sample taken from the person, and NOT that it was necessarily isolated from anything else (so that it could be used to identify the genome sequence).
Sure, there are millions of people who have had samples taken from them and therefore "isolated" in that context. But that is NOT what some of us here are talking about when we talk about "isolate (and purify)" for the purpose of analyzing it -- whether to identify the genome sequence or to find out if it is actually a pathogen at all.
This whole thing is a pile of lies on top of lies on top of lies, so we have to be able to parse it all out, unwind the lies, and figure out what the truth is.
The word "isolated" has more than one meaning.
The paper says:
See the problem here?
We already know that PCR does NOT diagnose. It ONLY replicates what you have. Does not tell you IF WHAT YOU HAVE CAUSED THE SYMPTOMS that the patient was reporting.
It also says:
Another problem. BIG problem. Do you see it?
Obviously, this could not be the FIRST attempt to identify SARS-CoV-2, since they ALREADY had SOMETHING ELSE to compare it with.
Those of us who say the virus has not been isolated AND PURIFIED, are specifically referencing the Koch's Postulates framework to isolate AND purify a substance, AND also inject it into a subject (even if a rat or monkey) to find out IF IT CAUSES HARM.
THAT is the ONLY way to KNOW if this thing is at all harmful.
A substance must also be isolated and purified so that it can be analyzed ... SO THAT THE GENOME SEQUENCE CAN BE IDENTIFIED.
It does not appear that ANYBODY has ever done that. They seem to be just using a computer model.
See the problem?
In this case, they simply extracted a sample, used PCR, and then compared it to an already known SARS-CoV-2 genome sequence that they CLAIM proves this man had Covid.
The only thing this paper does is explain the first DIAGNOSIS in Australia.
It does NOT show how the SARS-CoV-2 genome was identified with an isolated AND purified sample.
The reason this is a MAJOR PROBLEM is this:
https://rightsfreedoms.wordpress.com/2021/07/19/the-scam-has-been-confirmed-pcr-does-not-detect-sars-cov-2-but-endogenous-gene-sequences/
The genetic sequence they are using could be FROM THE HUMAN BODY ITSELF, or from ANY NUMBER OF OTHER viruses or pathogens.
The ONLY way to know if THIS PARTICULAR thing is harmful to humans is to (a) isolate AND purify, then (b) inject into a test subject to (c) find out if it makes the subject sick with the SAME symptoms in the original subject(s) (there should be more than just one patient with symptoms -- there should be several with the SAME symptoms, and their samples should have the SAME material, and THAT is what should be analyzed).
This paper is just like others I have seen -- it does NOT describe how they came up with the SARS-CoV-2 genome sequence. It describes how they COMPARED a sample to an ALREADY EXISTING sequence (likely, from a computer and not from a physical sample in a lab).
"Isolate" in the context that some of us are using does NOT mean merely taking a sample from someone. It is much more than that. Taking this word out of context has been done with several papers, like the one you cited.
Bottom Line
It is my suspicion that the reason the CDC (and Australia's, UK's, Ireland's, and Canada's versions of the CDC) have ALL stated there is NO sample of SARS-CoV-2 that any lab can obtain is because none exists.
The reason none exists is because it was NEVER isolated and purified, and THEN studied, extracting the genome sequence from the sample.
Instead, the genome sequence was likely created by a computer model, and probably comes directly from a portion of the human genome itself or something that already exists in most humans, such as a coronavirus (common cold).
That is why anybody could be theoretically "diagnosed" as positive using PCR, which is not a diagnostic tool. It simply comes down to (a) extracting a sample from someone, (b) giving it to a lab, (c) identifying a genome sequence that is based on a computer model that is not actually SARS-CoV-2, (d) running that sequence material through an arbitrary number of PCR cycles (the number of which constantly changes, depending on what the desired outcome is, based on the changing narrative), and (e) giving a false "positive" or false "negative" result back to the doctor/clinic, who has no idea what actually happened.
The paper you cited merely explains how the FIRST case in Australia was "diagnosed." It has nothing to do with the ORIGINAL sequencing of the genome.
P.S. Don't be so snotty in your reply next time. We can have these discussions with respect, if we want to.
https://www.beiresources.org/Catalog/animalviruses/NR-52281.aspx
"Each vial contains approximately 0.5 mL of cell lysate and supernatant from Cercopithecus aethiops kidney cells infected with SARS-CoV-2, isolate USA-WA1/2020."
That is not an isolated/purified sample of SARS-CoV-2.
Do you not see "kidney cells?"
It only took you one minute to find it because you did not bother to read what it says.
Just can't stop being a condescending prick, huh?
You show me kidney cells infected with SARS-CoV-2, and you think that is clear evidence of a sample of SARS-CoV-2 isolated and purified?
It is not. If you think it is, then there is no point to further discussion of this.
BTW, I at least gave you the respect of reading through the things you cited. You did not show me the same respect. Can't have a "debate" that is one-sided.
You are the one making the claim.
You cite a paper that shows how they compared a sample to a pre-existing genome sequence.
I am asking where that pre-existing sequence came from.
You say "look at the references."
No, you show which reference of the many cited is for that specific issue.
Strawman argument.
Where is the research to show that "substance X" makes people/animals have "Y symptoms."
I have never seen that study.
Your strawman is also the reason Pfizer gave its experimental drug to the "control" (placebo) group as well as the test group. Both groups got the drug, which renders the trial meaningless.
BTW: stop being a prick.
Please understand this felonious fraud.
Big Hoax
but they are still going to user it for four months anyway.. because...uh... REEEEEEEEEEE
This also shows proof that the more the virus sticks around, the less issues people have with it.
They aren't that honest. It's because Bill Gates and George Soros bought a competing test and now everyone will have to take it to be sure. $$$$$$$$$
What has the link in the title got to do with your statement title mate?
The link just takes me to a story about Gov Abbot of Texas and a load of Fake News.....
Was there another link meant to be attached mate?
WWG1WGA
Buried in the article:
“including opening infusion centers for antibody therapy treatment across the entire state of Texas.”
He took the monoclonal antibody cocktail just like Trump. That is the true treatment here, not the vaccine.
I wonder if the new test will depend on a centralized system where the CDC has total control of the results, instead of the current patchwork of testing locations where CDC has no ability to edit.
Are tests results still bypassing the cdc and being reported to HHS? Or did Biden change this?
what is the EO in the testing solution on the swabs? https://www.cancer.gov/about-cancer/causes-prevention/risk/substances/ethylene-oxide
Has anyone considered that we are really dealing with a bio-chemical attack instead of a virus? We know the COVID-19 virus has not been isolated and purified So how did the vaxxine ever get developed for COVID-19? David Martin, Ph.D. has incontrovertible evidence the mRNA vaxxine was developed before COVID-19 was "leaked from a Wuhan lab".
Strange, no?
Now let's look at the vaxxine itself. We have learned that it is loaded with graphine oxide (GO), which is a known carcinogen. GO toxicity has the same symptoms as COVID-19 has. People lose their taste and smell and it attacks the respiratory system, heart, and other organs.
So, how are people getting sick? How is it that people in unaffected rural areas come down with this and getting sick? I don't know. However, my gut tells me that GO was released in the environment somehow. Was there aerial spraying of Graphene Oxide? Is it in the drinking water? Fertilizers, herbicides, Food packaging?
I am not believing the virus story. I don't believe there is a virus. I believe this is bio-chemical warfare against the American people.